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| [Code of Federal Regulations] |
| [Title 21, Volume 9] |
| [CITE: 21CFR1305] |
TITLE 21--FOOD AND DRUGS CHAPTER II--DRUG ENFORCEMENT ADMINISTRATION DEPARTMENT OF JUSTICE
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| PART 1305 | ORDERS FOR SCHEDULE I AND II CONTROLLED SUBSTANCES |
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Subpart C - Electronic Orders
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General Information
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Sec. 1306.01 Scope of part 1306.
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Rules governing the issuance, filling and filing of prescriptions pursuant to section 309 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 829) are set forth generally in that section and specifically by the sections of this part.
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Sec. 1306.02 Definitions.
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Any term contained in this part shall have the definition set forth in section 102 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 802) or part 1300 of this chapter.
[62 FR 13964, Mar. 24, 1997]
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Sec. 1306.03 Persons entitled to issue prescriptions.
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(a) A prescription for a controlled substance may be issued only by an individual practitioner who is:
(1) Authorized to prescribe controlled substances by the jurisdiction in which he is licensed to practice his profession and
(2) Either registered or exempted from registration pursuant to §§ 1301.22(c) and 1301.23 of this chapter.
(b) A prescription issued by an individual practitioner may be communicated to a pharmacist by an employee or agent of the individual practitioner.
[36 FR 7799, Apr. 24, 1971, as amended at 36 FR 18732, Sept. 21, 1971. Redesignated at 38 FR 26609, Sept. 24, 1973, as amended at 62 FR 13966, Mar. 24, 1997]
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Sec. 1306.04 Purpose of issue of prescription.
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(a) A prescription for a controlled substance to be effective must be issued for a legitimate medical purpose by an individual practitioner acting in the usual course of his professional practice. The responsibility for the proper prescribing and dispensing of controlled substances is upon the prescribing practitioner, but a corresponding responsibility rests with the pharmacist who fills the prescription. An order purporting to be a prescription issued not in the usual course of professional treatment or in legitimate and authorized research is not a prescription within the meaning and intent of section 309 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 829) and the person knowingly filling such a purported prescription, as well as the person issuing it, shall be subject to the penalties provided for violations of the provisions of law relating to controlled substances.
(b) A prescription may not be issued in order for an individual practitioner to obtain controlled substances for supplying the individual practitioner for the purpose of general dispensing to patients.
(c) A prescription may not be issued for "detoxification treatment" or "maintenance treatment," unless the prescription is for a Schedule III, IV, or V narcotic drug approved by the Food and Drug Administration specifically for use in maintenance or detoxification treatment and the practitioner is in compliance with requirements in § 1301.28 of this chapter.
(d) A prescription may be issued by a qualifying practitioner, as defined in section 303(g)(2)G)(iii) of the Act (21 U.S.C. 823(g)(2)(G)(iii), in accordance with § 1306.05 for a Schedule III, IV, or V controlled substance for the purpose of maintenance or detoxification treatment for the purposes of administration in accordance with section 309A of the Act (21 U.S.C. 829a) and § 1306.07(f). Such prescription issued by a qualifying practitioner shall not be used to supply any practitioner with a stock of controlled substances for the purpose of general dispensing to patients.
[36 FR 7799, Apr. 24, 1971. Redesignated at 38 FR 26609, Sept. 24, 1973, and amended at 39 FR 37986, Oct. 25, 1974; 70 FR 36343, June 23, 2005; 85 FR 69167, Nov. 2, 2020]
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Sec. 1306.05 Manner of issuance of prescriptions.
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(a) All prescriptions for controlled substances shall be dated as of, and signed on, the day when issued and shall bear the full name and address of the patient, the drug name, strength, dosage form, quantity prescribed, directions for use, and the name, address and registration number of the practitioner.
(b) A prescription for a Schedule III, IV, or V narcotic drug approved by FDA specifically for "detoxification treatment" or "maintenance treatment" must include the identification number issued by the Administrator under § 1301.28(d) of this chapter or a written notice stating that the practitioner is acting under the good faith exception of § 1301.28(e) of this chapter.
(c) Where a prescription is for gamma-hydroxybutyric acid, the practitioner shall note on the face of the prescription the medical need of the patient for the prescription.
(d) A practitioner may sign a paper prescription in the same manner as he would sign a check or legal document (e.g., J.H. Smith or John H. Smith). Where an oral order is not permitted, paper prescriptions shall be written with ink or indelible pencil, typewriter, or printed on a computer printer and shall be manually signed by the practitioner. A computer-generated prescription that is printed out or faxed by the practitioner must be manually signed.
(e) Electronic prescriptions shall be created and signed using an application that meets the requirements of part 1311 of this chapter.
(f) A prescription may be prepared by the secretary or agent for the signature of a practitioner, but the prescribing practitioner is responsible in case the prescription does not conform in all essential respects to the law and regulations. A corresponding liability rests upon the pharmacist, including a pharmacist employed by a central fill pharmacy, who fills a prescription not prepared in the form prescribed by DEA regulations.
(g) An individual practitioner exempted from registration under § 1301.22(c) of this chapter shall include on all prescriptions issued by him the registration number of the hospital or other institution and the special internal code number assigned to him by the hospital or other institution as provided in § 1301.22(c) of this chapter, in lieu of the registration number of the practitioner required by this section. Each paper prescription shall have the name of the practitioner stamped, typed, or handprinted on it, as well as the signature of the practitioner.
(h) An official exempted from registration under § 1301.23(a) of this chapter must include on all prescriptions issued by him his branch of service or agency (e.g., "U.S. Army" or "Public Health Service") and his service identification number, in lieu of the registration number of the practitioner required by this section. The service identification number for a Public Health Service employee is his Social Security identification number. Each paper prescription shall have the name of the officer stamped, typed, or handprinted on it, as well as the signature of the officer.
[75 FR 16307, Mar. 31, 2010]
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Sec. 1306.06 Persons entitled to fill prescriptions.
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A prescription for a controlled substance may only be filled by a pharmacist, acting in the usual course of his professional practice and either registered individually or employed in a registered pharmacy, a registered central fill pharmacy, or registered institutional practitioner.
[68 FR 37410, June 24, 2003, as amended at 70 FR 36343, June 23, 2005]
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Sec. 1306.07 Administering or dispensing of narcotic drugs.
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(a) A practitioner may administer or dispense directly (but not prescribe) a narcotic drug listed in any schedule to a narcotic dependant person for the purpose of maintenance or detoxification treatment if the practitioner meets both of the following conditions:
(1) The practitioner is separately registered with DEA as a narcotic treatment program.
(2) The practitioner is in compliance with DEA regulations regarding treatment qualifications, security, records, and unsupervised use of the drugs pursuant to the Act.
(b) Nothing in this section shall prohibit a practitioner, who is not specifically registered to conduct a narcotic treatment program, from dispensing (but not prescribing) narcotic drugs, in accordance with applicable Federal, State, and local laws relating to controlled substances, to one person or for one person's use at one time for the purpose of initiating maintenance treatment or detoxification treatment (or both). Not more than a three-day supply of such medication may be dispensed to the person or for the person's use at one time while arrangements are being made for referral for treatment. Such emergency treatment may not be renewed or extended.
(c) This section is not intended to impose any limitations on a physician or authorized hospital staff to administer or dispense narcotic drugs in a hospital to maintain or detoxify a person as an incidental adjunct to medical or surgical treatment of conditions other than addiction, or to administer or dispense narcotic drugs to persons with intractable pain in which no relief or cure is possible or none has been found after reasonable efforts.
(d) A practitioner may administer or dispense (including prescribe) any Schedule III, IV, or V narcotic drug approved by the Food and Drug Administration specifically for use in maintenance or detoxification treatment to a narcotic dependent person if the practitioner complies with the requirements of § 1301.28 of this chapter.
(e) [Reserved]
(f) Notwithstanding the definition of dispense under section 102(10) of the Act (21 U.S.C 802(10)), a pharmacy may deliver a controlled substance to a practitioner, pursuant to a prescription that meets the requirements under § 1306.04 for the purpose of administering the controlled substance by the practitioner if:
(1) The controlled substance is delivered by the pharmacy to the prescribing practitioner or the practitioner administering the controlled substance, as applicable, at the location, listed on the practitioner's certificate of registration;
(2) The controlled substance is to be administered for the purpose of maintenance or detoxification treatment under section 303(g)(2)(G)(iii) of the Act (21 U.S.C. 823(g)(2)(G)(iii)); and
(i) The practitioner who issued the prescription is a qualifying practitioner as defined in section 303(g) of the Act (21 U.S.C. 823(g)); and
(ii) The controlled substance is to be administered by injection or implantation;
(3) The pharmacy and the practitioner are authorized to conduct such activities specified in this paragraph (f) under the law of the State in which such activities take place;
(4) The prescription is not issued to supply any practitioner with a stock of controlled substances for the purpose of general dispensing to patients;
(5) The controlled substance is to be administered only to the patient named on the prescription not later than 14 days after the date of receipt of the controlled substance by the practitioner; and
(6) Notwithstanding any exceptions under section 307 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 827), the prescribing practitioner, and the practitioner administering the controlled substance, as applicable, shall maintain complete and accurate records of all controlled substances delivered, received, administered, or otherwise disposed of, under this paragraph (f), including the persons to whom the controlled substances were delivered and such other information as may be required under this chapter.
[39 FR 37986, Oct. 25, 1974, as amended at 70 FR 36344, June 23, 2005; 85 FR 69167, Nov. 2, 2020; 88 FR 53382, Aug. 8, 2023]
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Sec. 1306.08 Electronic prescriptions.
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(a) An individual practitioner may sign and transmit electronic prescriptions for controlled substances provided the practitioner meets all of the following requirements:
(1) The practitioner must comply with all other requirements for issuing controlled substance prescriptions in this part;
(2) The practitioner must use an application that meets the requirements of part 1311 of this chapter; and
(3) The practitioner must comply with the requirements for practitioners in part 1311 of this chapter.
(b) A pharmacy may fill an electronically transmitted prescription for a controlled substance provided the pharmacy complies with all other requirements for filling controlled substance prescriptions in this part and with the requirements of part 1311 of this chapter.
(c) To annotate an electronic prescription, a pharmacist must include all of the information that this part requires in the prescription record.
(d) If the content of any of the information required under § 1306.05 for a controlled substance prescription is altered during the transmission, the prescription is deemed to be invalid and the pharmacy may not dispense the controlled substance.
(e) The transfer for initial dispensing of an electronic prescription for a controlled substance in Schedule II-V is permissible between retail pharmacies, upon request from the patient, on a one-time basis only. If the transferred prescription is for a controlled substance in Schedule III, IV, or V and includes authorized refills, the refills are transferred with the initial prescription to the pharmacy receiving the transfer.
(f) The transfer of an electronic prescription for a controlled substance in Schedule II-V between retail pharmacies for the purpose of initial dispensing is subject to the following requirements:
(1) The prescription must be transferred from one retail pharmacy to another retail pharmacy in its electronic form. At no time may an intermediary convert an electronic prescription to another form (e.g., facsimile) for transmission.
(2) The contents of the prescription required by this part must not be altered during transfer between retail pharmacies. Any change to the content during transfer, including truncation or removal of data, will render the electronic prescription invalid.
(3) The transfer must be communicated directly between two licensed pharmacists.
(4) The transferring pharmacist must add the following to the electronic prescription record:
(i) Information that the prescription has been transferred.
(ii) The name, address, and DEA registration number of the pharmacy to which the prescription was transferred and the name of the pharmacist receiving the prescription information.
(iii) The date of the transfer and the name of the pharmacist transferring the prescription information.
(5) The receiving pharmacist must do the following:
(i) Add the word "transfer" to the electronic prescription record at the receiving pharmacy.
(ii) Annotate the prescription record with the name, address, and DEA registration number of the pharmacy from which the prescription was transferred and the name of the pharmacist who transferred the prescription.
(iii) Record the date of the transfer and the name of the pharmacist receiving the prescription information.
(6) In lieu of manual data entry, the transferring or receiving pharmacy's prescription processing software may, if capable, capture the information required, as outlined in this paragraph (f), from the electronic prescription and automatically populate the corresponding data fields to document the transfer of an electronic controlled substance prescription between pharmacies. The transferring or receiving pharmacist, as applicable, must ensure that the populated information is complete and accurate.
(g) The transfer of an electronic prescription for a controlled substance in Schedule II-V for the purpose of initial dispensing is permissible only if allowable under existing State or other applicable law.
(h) The electronic records documenting the transfer of the electronic prescription must be maintained for a period of two years from the date of the transfer by both the pharmacy transferring the electronic prescription and the pharmacy receiving the electronic prescription.
(i) A pharmacy may transfer electronic prescription information for a controlled substance in Schedule III, IV, and V to another pharmacy for the purpose of refill dispensing pursuant to § 1306.25.
[75 FR 16307, Mar. 31, 2010, as amended at 88 FR 48379, July 27, 2023]
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Sec. 1306.09 Prescription requirements for online pharmacies.
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(a) No controlled substance that is a prescription drug may be delivered, distributed, or dispensed by means of the Internet without a valid prescription.
(b) In accordance with the Act, it is unlawful for any person to knowingly or intentionally fill a prescription for a controlled substance that was issued in a manner that constitutes dispensing by means of the Internet unless such person is a pharmacist who is acting in the usual course of his professional practice and is acting on behalf of a pharmacy whose registration has been modified under sections 1301.13 and 1301.19 of this chapter to authorize it to operate as an online pharmacy.
(c) Any online pharmacy that participates in the transfer between pharmacies of prescription information must do so in accordance with the requirements of §§ 1306.15 and 1306.25 of this part.
[74 FR 15624, Apr. 6, 2009]
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Controlled Substances Listed in Schedule II
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Sec. 1306.11 Requirement of prescription.
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(a) A pharmacist may dispense directly a controlled substance listed in Schedule II that is a prescription drug as determined under section 503 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 353(b)) only pursuant to a written prescription signed by the practitioner, except as provided in paragraph (d) of this section. A paper prescription for a Schedule II controlled substance may be transmitted by the practitioner or the practitioner's agent to a pharmacy via facsimile equipment, provided that the original manually signed prescription is presented to the pharmacist for review prior to the actual dispensing of the controlled substance, except as noted in paragraph (e), (f), or (g) of this section. The original prescription shall be maintained in accordance with § 1304.04(h) of this chapter.
(b) An individual practitioner may administer or dispense directly a controlled substance listed in Schedule II in the course of his professional practice without a prescription, subject to § 1306.07.
(c) An institutional practitioner may administer or dispense directly (but not prescribe) a controlled substance listed in Schedule II only pursuant to a written prescription signed by the prescribing individual practitioner or to an order for medication made by an individual practitioner that is dispensed for immediate administration to the ultimate user.
(d) In the case of an emergency situation, as defined by the Secretary in § 290.10 of this title, a pharmacist may dispense a controlled substance listed in Schedule II upon receiving oral authorization of a prescribing individual practitioner, provided that:
(1) The quantity prescribed and dispensed is limited to the amount adequate to treat the patient during the emergency period (dispensing beyond the emergency period must be pursuant to a paper or electronic prescription signed by the prescribing individual practitioner);
(2) The prescription shall be immediately reduced to writing by the pharmacist and shall contain all information required in § 1306.05, except for the signature of the prescribing individual practitioner;
(3) If the prescribing individual practitioner is not known to the pharmacist, he must make a reasonable effort to determine that the oral authorization came from a registered individual practitioner, which may include a callback to the prescribing individual practitioner using his phone number as listed in the telephone directory and/or other good faith efforts to insure his identity; and
(4) Within 7 days after authorizing an emergency oral prescription, the prescribing individual practitioner shall cause a written prescription for the emergency quantity prescribed to be delivered to the dispensing pharmacist. In addition to conforming to the requirements of § 1306.05, the prescription shall have written on its face "Authorization for Emergency Dispensing," and the date of the oral order. The paper prescription may be delivered to the pharmacist in person or by mail, but if delivered by mail it must be postmarked within the 7-day period. Upon receipt, the dispensing pharmacist must attach this paper prescription to the oral emergency prescription that had earlier been reduced to writing. For electronic prescriptions, the pharmacist must annotate the record of the electronic prescription with the original authorization and date of the oral order. The pharmacist must notify the nearest office of the Administration if the prescribing individual practitioner fails to deliver a written prescription to him; failure of the pharmacist to do so shall void the authority conferred by this paragraph to dispense without a written prescription of a prescribing individual practitioner.
(5) Central fill pharmacies shall not be authorized under this paragraph to prepare prescriptions for a controlled substance listed in Schedule II upon receiving an oral authorization from a retail pharmacist or an individual practitioner.
(e) A prescription prepared in accordance with § 1306.05 written for a Schedule II narcotic substance to be compounded for the direct administration to a patient by parenteral, intravenous, intramuscular, subcutaneous or intraspinal infusion may be transmitted by the practitioner or the practitioner's agent to the pharmacy by facsimile. The facsimile serves as the original written prescription for purposes of this paragraph (e) and it shall be maintained in accordance with § 1304.04(h) of this chapter.
(f) A prescription prepared in accordance with § 1306.05 written for Schedule II substance for a resident of a Long Term Care Facility may be transmitted by the practitioner or the practitioner's agent to the dispensing pharmacy by facsimile. The facsimile serves as the original written prescription for purposes of this paragraph (f) and it shall be maintained in accordance with § 1304.04(h).
(g) A prescription prepared in accordance with § 1306.05 written for a Schedule II narcotic substance for a patient enrolled in a hospice care program certified and/or paid for by Medicare under Title XVIII or a hospice program which is licensed by the state may be transmitted by the practitioner or the practitioner's agent to the dispensing pharmacy by facsimile. The practitioner or the practitioner's agent will note on the prescription that the patient is a hospice patient. The facsimile serves as the original written prescription for purposes of this paragraph (g) and it shall be maintained in accordance with § 1304.04(h).
[36 FR 7799, Apr. 24, 1971, as amended at 36 FR 18733, Sept. 21, 1971. Redesignated at 38 FR 26609, Sept. 24, 1973 and amended at 53 FR 4964, Feb. 19, 1988; 59 FR 26111, May 19, 1994; 59 FR 30832, June 15, 1994; 62 FR 13964, Mar. 24, 1997; 65 FR 45713, July 25, 2000; 68 FR 37410, June 24, 2003; 75 FR 16307, Mar. 31, 2010]
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Sec. 1306.12 Refilling prescriptions; issuance of multiple prescriptions.
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(a) The refilling of a prescription for a controlled substance listed in Schedule II is prohibited.
(b)(1) An individual practitioner may issue multiple prescriptions authorizing the patient to receive a total of up to a 90-day supply of a Schedule II controlled substance provided the following conditions are met:
(i) Each separate prescription is issued for a legitimate medical purpose by an individual practitioner acting in the usual course of professional practice;
(ii) The individual practitioner provides written instructions on each prescription (other than the first prescription, if the prescribing practitioner intends for that prescription to be filled immediately) indicating the earliest date on which a pharmacy may fill each prescription;
(iii) The individual practitioner concludes that providing the patient with multiple prescriptions in this manner does not create an undue risk of diversion or abuse;
(iv) The issuance of multiple prescriptions as described in this section is permissible under the applicable state laws; and
(v) The individual practitioner complies fully with all other applicable requirements under the Act and these regulations as well as any additional requirements under state law.
(2) Nothing in this paragraph (b) shall be construed as mandating or encouraging individual practitioners to issue multiple prescriptions or to see their patients only once every 90 days when prescribing Schedule II controlled substances. Rather, individual practitioners must determine on their own, based on sound medical judgment, and in accordance with established medical standards, whether it is appropriate to issue multiple prescriptions and how often to see their patients when doing so.
[72 FR 64929, Nov. 19, 2007]
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Sec. 1306.13 Partial filling of prescriptions.
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(a) The partial filling of a prescription for a controlled substance listed in Schedule II is permissible if the pharmacist is unable to supply the full quantity called for in a written or emergency oral prescription and he makes a notation of the quantity supplied on the face of the written prescription, written record of the emergency oral prescription, or in the electronic prescription record. The remaining portion of the prescription may be filled within 72 hours of the first partial filling; however, if the remaining portion is not or cannot be filled within the 72-hour period, the pharmacist shall notify the prescribing individual practitioner. No further quantity may be supplied beyond 72 hours without a new prescription.
(b) Partial filling of a prescription for a schedule II controlled substance at the request of the prescribing practitioner or patient:
(1) General requirements. A prescription for a schedule II controlled substance may be partially filled if all of the following conditions are satisfied:
(i) It is not prohibited by State law;
(ii) The prescription is written and filled in accordance with the Act, this chapter, and State law.
(iii) The partial fill is requested by the patient, by one acting on behalf of the patient (parent or legal guardian of a minor patient, or caregiver of an adult patient named in a medical power of attorney), or by the practitioner who wrote the prescription; and
(iv) The total quantity dispensed in all partial fillings does not exceed the total quantity prescribed.
(2) Time limitations on filling the remaining portions of a partially filled prescription for a schedule II controlled substance. If all the conditions of paragraph (b)(1) of this section are satisfied, and the prescription is partially filled, remaining portions of a partially filled prescription for a schedule II controlled substance, if filled, must be filled not later than 30 days after the date on which the prescription is written, except that in the case of an emergency oral prescription, as described in subsection 309(a) of the Act (21 U.S.C. 829(a)), the remaining portions of a partially filled prescription for a schedule II controlled substance, if filled, must be filled not later than 72 hours after the prescription is issued.
(3) How a practitioner may request that a prescription for a schedule II controlled substance be partially filled. Where a practitioner issues a prescription for a schedule II controlled substance and wants the prescription to be partially filled, the practitioner must specify the quantity to be dispensed in each partial filling on the face of the written prescription, in the written record of the emergency oral prescription, or in the record for an electronic prescription. After consultation with a pharmacist, a practitioner may authorize a partial fill for the prescription at a date after which the prescription was initially issued; however, the prescription must be filled not later than 30 days after the date on which the prescription is written, except that in the case of an emergency oral prescription, as described in subsection 309(a) of the Act (21 U.S.C. 829(a)), the remaining portions of a partially filled prescription for a schedule II controlled substance, if filled, must be filled not later than 72 hours after the prescription is issued. The pharmacist must notate this subsequent request in accordance with paragraph (b)(5) of this section. All required information in this paragraph, except that of an authorization for partial filling at a later date, must be included on the prescription, along with the other information required by § 1306.05, at the time the practitioner signs the prescription, or in the case of an emergency oral prescription, this information must be communicated by the prescribing practitioner to the pharmacist at the time that the oral communication is taking place.
(4) How a patient or one acting on a patient's behalf may request that a prescription for a schedule II controlled substance be partially filled. A patient may request that his/her prescription for a schedule II controlled substance be partially filled. A caregiver named in an adult patient's medical power of attorney may request the adult patient's prescription be partially filled. When a patient is a minor (under age 18), a parent or legal guardian of the minor may request the prescription be partially filled. Where a practitioner has requested the partial filling of a prescription in accordance with paragraph (b)(3) of this section, neither the patient, the parent or legal guardian (in the case of a minor), nor the caregiver of an adult patient named in a medical power of attorney may request a partial filling in an amount greater than that specified by the practitioner. A request by the patient, the adult patient's caregiver named in the medical power of attorney, or the parent/legal guardian of a minor patient may be made: in person; in writing if signed by the patient, the adult patient's caregiver named in the medical power of attorney, or the parent/legal guardian of a minor patient; or by a phone call to the pharmacist from the patient, the adult patient's caregiver named in the medical power of attorney, or the parent/legal guardian of a minor patient.
(5) How a pharmacy must record the partial filling of a prescription for a schedule II controlled substance. (i) Upon partially filling a prescription at the request of the prescribing practitioner, as requested when the prescriber issued the prescription, in accordance with paragraph (b)(3) of this section, the pharmacist must make a notation of the quantity dispensed on the face of the written prescription or in the pharmacy's electronic records, in the written record or the pharmacy's electronic records of the emergency oral prescription, or in the record of the electronic prescription. When the pharmacist partially fills a prescription, after the prescriber has conveyed this request in a consultation with a pharmacist in accordance with paragraph (b)(3), the pharmacist must note the following: "Authorized by Practitioner to Partial Fill," the name of the practitioner, the date and time of the discussion, and the pharmacist's initials. In addition, for each such partial filling (whether requested by the prescriber on the prescription or after consultation with the pharmacist), the pharmacy must maintain a record of dispensing that includes the date of each dispensing, the name or initials of the individual who dispensed the substance, and all other information required by 21 CFR 1306.22(c) for schedule III and IV prescription refills. For electronic prescriptions specifically, such required information pertaining to the quantity dispensed, date dispensed, and the dispenser must be linked to each electronic controlled substance prescription record.
(ii) Upon partially filling a prescription at the request of the patient, the caregiver of an adult patient who is named in their medical power of attorney, or a parent or legal guardian of a minor patient, in accordance with paragraph (b)(4) of this section, the pharmacist must make a notation of the following on the face of the written prescription or in the pharmacy's electronic records, in the written record or the pharmacy's electronic records of the emergency oral prescription, or in the record of the electronic prescription: (I) "The [patient, parent or legal guardian of a minor patient, or caregiver of an adult patient named in a medical power of attorney] requested partial fill on [date such request was made]" and (II) the quantity dispensed. In addition, for each such partial filling, the pharmacy must maintain a record of dispensing that includes the date of each dispensing, the name or initials of the individual who dispensed the substance, and all other information required by 21 CFR 1306.22(c) for schedule III and IV prescriptions. For electronic prescriptions specifically, such required information pertaining to the quantity dispensed, date dispensed, and the dispenser must be linked to each electronic controlled substance prescription record.
(c) A prescription for a Schedule II controlled substance written for a patient in a Long Term Care Facility (LTCF) or for a patient with a medical diagnosis documenting a terminal illness may be filled in partial quantities to include individual dosage units. If there is any question whether a patient may be classified as having a terminal illness, the pharmacist must contact the practitioner prior to partially filling the prescription. Both the pharmacist and the prescribing practitioner have a corresponding responsibility to assure that the controlled substance is for a terminally ill patient. The pharmacist must record on the prescription whether the patient is "terminally ill" or an "LTCF patient." A prescription that is partially filled and does not contain the notation "terminally ill" or "LTCF patient" shall be deemed to have been filled in violation of the Act. For each partial filling, the dispensing pharmacist shall record on the back of the prescription (or on another appropriate record, uniformly maintained, and readily retrievable) the date of the partial filling, quantity dispensed, remaining quantity authorized to be dispensed, and the identification of the dispensing pharmacist. The total quantity of Schedule II controlled substances dispensed in all partial fillings must not exceed the total quantity prescribed. Schedule II prescriptions for patients in a LTCF or patients with a medical diagnosis documenting a terminal illness shall be valid for a period not to exceed 60 days from the issue date unless sooner terminated by the discontinuance of medication.
(d) Information pertaining to current Schedule II prescriptions for patients in a LTCF or for patients with a medical diagnosis documenting a terminal illness may be maintained in a computerized system if this system has the capability to permit:
(1) Output (display or printout) of the original prescription number, date of issue, identification of prescribing individual practitioner, identification of patient, address of the LTCF or address of the hospital or residence of the patient, identification of medication authorized (to include dosage, form, strength and quantity), listing of the partial fillings that have been dispensed under each prescription and the information required in § 1306.13(c).
(2) Immediate (real time) updating of the prescription record each time a partial filling of the prescription is conducted.
(3) Retrieval of partially filled Schedule II prescription information is the same as required by § 1306.22(b) (4) and (5) for Schedule III and IV prescription refill information.
(Authority: 21 U.S.C. 801, et seq. ) [36 FR 7799, Apr. 24, 1971. Redesignated at 38 FR 26609, Sept. 24, 1973, and amended at 45 FR 54330, July 15, 1980; 56 FR 25027, June 3, 1991; 62 FR 13965, Mar. 24, 1997; 75 FR 16308, Mar. 31, 2010; 88 FR 47001, July 21, 2023]
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Sec. 1306.14 Labeling of substances and filling of prescriptions.
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(a) The pharmacist filling a written or emergency oral prescription for a controlled substance listed in Schedule II shall affix to the package a label showing date of filling, the pharmacy name and address, the serial number of the prescription, the name of the patient, the name of the prescribing practitioner, and directions for use and cautionary statements, if any, contained in such prescription or required by law.
(b) If the prescription is filled at a central fill pharmacy, the central fill pharmacy shall affix to the package a label showing the retail pharmacy name and address and a unique identifier, (i.e. the central fill pharmacy's DEA registration number) indicating that the prescription was filled at the central fill pharmacy, in addition to the information required under paragraph (a) of this section.
(c) The requirements of paragraph (a) of this section do not apply when a controlled substance listed in Schedule II is prescribed for administration to an ultimate user who is institutionalized: Provided, That:
(1) Not more than 7-day supply of the controlled substance listed in Schedule II is dispensed at one time;
(2) The controlled substance listed in Schedule II is not in the possession of the ultimate user prior to the administration;
(3) The institution maintains appropriate safeguards and records regarding the proper administration, control, dispensing, and storage of the controlled substance listed in Schedule II; and
(4) The system employed by the pharmacist in filling a prescription is adequate to identify the supplier, the product, and the patient, and to set forth the directions for use and cautionary statements, if any, contained in the prescription or required by law.
(d) All written prescriptions and written records of emergency oral prescriptions shall be kept in accordance with requirements of § 1304.04(h) of this chapter.
(e) Where a prescription that has been prepared in accordance with section 1306.12(b) contains instructions from the prescribing practitioner indicating that the prescription shall not be filled until a certain date, no pharmacist may fill the prescription before that date.
[36 FR 13368, July 21, 1971, as amended at 37 FR 15921, Aug. 8, 1972. Redesignated at 38 FR 26609, Sept. 24, 1973, as amended at 62 FR 13965, Mar. 24, 1997; 68 FR 37410, June 24, 2003; 72 FR 64930, Nov. 19, 2007]
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Sec. 1306.15 Provision of prescription information between retail pharmacies and central fill pharmacies for prescriptions of Schedule II controlled substances.
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Prescription information may be provided to an authorized central fill pharmacy by a retail pharmacy for dispensing purposes. The following requirements shall also apply:
(a) Prescriptions for controlled substances listed in Schedule II may be transmitted electronically from a retail pharmacy to a central fill pharmacy including via facsimile. The retail pharmacy transmitting the prescription information must:
(1) Write the words "CENTRAL FILL" on the face of the original paper prescription and record the name, address, and DEA registration number of the central fill pharmacy to which the prescription has been transmitted, the name of the retail pharmacy pharmacist transmitting the prescription, and the date of transmittal. For electronic prescriptions the name, address, and DEA registration number of the central fill pharmacy to which the prescription has been transmitted, the name of the retail pharmacy pharmacist transmitting the prescription, and the date of transmittal must be added to the electronic prescription record.
(2) Ensure that all information required to be on a prescription pursuant to Section 1306.05 of this part is transmitted to the central fill pharmacy (either on the face of the prescription or in the electronic transmission of information);
(3) Maintain the original prescription for a period of two years from the date the prescription was filled;
(4) Keep a record of receipt of the filled prescription, including the date of receipt, the method of delivery (private, common or contract carrier) and the name of the retail pharmacy employee accepting delivery.
(b) The central fill pharmacy receiving the transmitted prescription must:
(1) Keep a copy of the prescription (if sent via facsimile) or an electronic record of all the information transmitted by the retail pharmacy, including the name, address, and DEA registration number of the retail pharmacy transmitting the prescription;
(2) Keep a record of the date of receipt of the transmitted prescription, the name of the pharmacist filling the prescription, and the date of filling of the prescription;
(3) Keep a record of the date the filled prescription was delivered to the retail pharmacy and the method of delivery (i.e. private, common or contract carrier).
[68 FR 37410, June 24, 2003, as amended at 75 FR 16308, Mar. 31, 2010]
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Controlled Substances Listed in Schedules III, IV, and V
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Sec. 1306.21 Requirement of prescription.
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(a) A pharmacist may dispense directly a controlled substance listed in Schedule III, IV, or V that is a prescription drug as determined under section 503(b) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 353(b)) only pursuant to either a paper prescription signed by a practitioner, a facsimile of a signed paper prescription transmitted by the practitioner or the practitioner's agent to the pharmacy, an electronic prescription that meets the requirements of this part and part 1311 of this chapter, or an oral prescription made by an individual practitioner and promptly reduced to writing by the pharmacist containing all information required in § 1306.05, except for the signature of the practitioner.
(b) An individual practitioner may administer or dispense directly a controlled substance listed in Schedule III, IV, or V in the course of his/her professional practice without a prescription, subject to § 1306.07.
(c) An institutional practitioner may administer or dispense directly (but not prescribe) a controlled substance listed in Schedule III, IV, or V only pursuant to a paper prescription signed by an individual practitioner, a facsimile of a paper prescription or order for medication transmitted by the practitioner or the practitioner's agent to the institutional practitioner-pharmacist, an electronic prescription that meets the requirements of this part and part 1311 of this chapter, or an oral prescription made by an individual practitioner and promptly reduced to writing by the pharmacist (containing all information required in § 1306.05 except for the signature of the individual practitioner), or pursuant to an order for medication made by an individual practitioner that is dispensed for immediate administration to the ultimate user, subject to § 1306.07.
[62 FR 13965, Mar. 24, 1997, as amended at 75 FR 16308, Mar. 31, 2010]
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Sec. 1306.22 Refilling of prescriptions.
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(a) No prescription for a controlled substance listed in Schedule III or IV shall be filled or refilled more than six months after the date on which such prescription was issued. No prescription for a controlled substance listed in Schedule III or IV authorized to be refilled may be refilled more than five times.
(b) Each refilling of a prescription shall be entered on the back of the prescription or on another appropriate document or electronic prescription record. If entered on another document, such as a medication record, or electronic prescription record, the document or record must be uniformly maintained and readily retrievable.
(c) The following information must be retrievable by the prescription number:
(1) The name and dosage form of the controlled substance.
(2) The date filled or refilled.
(3) The quantity dispensed.
(4) The initials of the dispensing pharmacist for each refill.
(5) The total number of refills for that prescription.
(d) If the pharmacist merely initials and dates the back of the prescription or annotates the electronic prescription record, it shall be deemed that the full face amount of the prescription has been dispensed.
(e) The prescribing practitioner may authorize additional refills of Schedule III or IV controlled substances on the original prescription through an oral refill authorization transmitted to the pharmacist provided the following conditions are met:
(1) The total quantity authorized, including the amount of the original prescription, does not exceed five refills nor extend beyond six months from the date of issue of the original prescription.
(2) The pharmacist obtaining the oral authorization records on the reverse of the original paper prescription or annotates the electronic prescription record with the date, quantity of refill, number of additional refills authorized, and initials the paper prescription or annotates the electronic prescription record showing who received the authorization from the prescribing practitioner who issued the original prescription.
(3) The quantity of each additional refill authorized is equal to or less than the quantity authorized for the initial filling of the original prescription.
(4) The prescribing practitioner must execute a new and separate prescription for any additional quantities beyond the five-refill, six-month limitation.
(f) As an alternative to the procedures provided by paragraphs (a) through (e) of this section, a computer application may be used for the storage and retrieval of refill information for original paper prescription orders for controlled substances in Schedule III and IV, subject to the following conditions:
(1) Any such proposed computerized application must provide online retrieval (via computer monitor or hard-copy printout) of original prescription order information for those prescription orders that are currently authorized for refilling. This shall include, but is not limited to, data such as the original prescription number; date of issuance of the original prescription order by the practitioner; full name and address of the patient; name, address, and DEA registration number of the practitioner; and the name, strength, dosage form, quantity of the controlled substance prescribed (and quantity dispensed if different from the quantity prescribed), and the total number of refills authorized by the prescribing practitioner.
(2) Any such proposed computerized application must also provide online retrieval (via computer monitor or hard-copy printout) of the current refill history for Schedule III or IV controlled substance prescription orders (those authorized for refill during the past six months). This refill history shall include, but is not limited to, the name of the controlled substance, the date of refill, the quantity dispensed, the identification code, or name or initials of the dispensing pharmacist for each refill and the total number of refills dispensed to date for that prescription order.
(3) Documentation of the fact that the refill information entered into the computer each time a pharmacist refills an original paper, fax, or oral prescription order for a Schedule III or IV controlled substance is correct must be provided by the individual pharmacist who makes use of such an application. If such an application provides a hard-copy printout of each day's controlled substance prescription order refill data, that printout shall be verified, dated, and signed by the individual pharmacist who refilled such a prescription order. The individual pharmacist must verify that the data indicated are correct and then sign this document in the same manner as he would sign a check or legal document (e.g., J.H. Smith, or John H. Smith). This document shall be maintained in a separate file at that pharmacy for a period of two years from the dispensing date. This printout of the day's controlled substance prescription order refill data must be provided to each pharmacy using such a computerized application within 72 hours of the date on which the refill was dispensed. It must be verified and signed by each pharmacist who is involved with such dispensing. In lieu of such a printout, the pharmacy shall maintain a bound log book, or separate file, in which each individual pharmacist involved in such dispensing shall sign a statement (in the manner previously described) each day, attesting to the fact that the refill information entered into the computer that day has been reviewed by him and is correct as shown. Such a book or file must be maintained at the pharmacy employing such an application for a period of two years after the date of dispensing the appropriately authorized refill.
(4) Any such computerized application shall have the capability of producing a printout of any refill data that the user pharmacy is responsible for maintaining under the Act and its implementing regulations. For example, this would include a refill-by-refill audit trail for any specified strength and dosage form of any controlled substance (by either brand or generic name or both). Such a printout must include name of the prescribing practitioner, name and address of the patient, quantity dispensed on each refill, date of dispensing for each refill, name or identification code of the dispensing pharmacist, and the number of the original prescription order. In any computerized application employed by a user pharmacy the central recordkeeping location must be capable of sending the printout to the pharmacy within 48 hours, and if a DEA Special Agent or Diversion Investigator requests a copy of such printout from the user pharmacy, it must, if requested to do so by the Agent or Investigator, verify the printout transmittal capability of its application by documentation (e.g., postmark).
(5) In the event that a pharmacy which employs such a computerized application experiences system down-time, the pharmacy must have an auxiliary procedure which will be used for documentation of refills of Schedule III and IV controlled substance prescription orders. This auxiliary procedure must ensure that refills are authorized by the original prescription order, that the maximum number of refills has not been exceeded, and that all of the appropriate data are retained for online data entry as soon as the computer system is available for use again.
(g) When filing refill information for original paper, fax, or oral prescription orders for Schedule III or IV controlled substances, a pharmacy may use only one of the two applications described in paragraphs (a) through (e) or (f) of this section.
(h) When filing refill information for electronic prescriptions, a pharmacy must use an application that meets the requirements of part 1311 of this chapter.
[75 FR 16308, Mar. 31, 2010]
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Sec. 1306.23 Partial filling of prescriptions.
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The partial filling of a prescription for a controlled substance listed in Schedule III, IV, or V is permissible, provided that:
(a) Each partial filling is recorded in the same manner as a refilling,
(b) The total quantity dispensed in all partial fillings does not exceed the total quantity prescribed, and
(c) No dispensing occurs after 6 months after the date on which the prescription was issued.
[36 FR 18733, Sept. 21, 1971. Redesignated at 38 FR 26609, Sept. 24, 1973, and amended at 51 FR 5320, Feb. 13, 1986; 62 FR 13965, Mar. 24, 1997]
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Sec. 1306.24 Labeling of substances and filling of prescriptions.
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(a) The pharmacist filling a prescription for a controlled substance listed in Schedule III, IV, or V shall affix to the package a label showing the pharmacy name and address, the serial number and date of initial filling, the name of the patient, the name of the practitioner issuing the prescription, and directions for use and cautionary statements, if any, contained in such prescription as required by law.
(b) If the prescription is filled at a central fill pharmacy, the central fill pharmacy shall affix to the package a label showing the retail pharmacy name and address and a unique identifier, (i.e. the central fill pharmacy's DEA registration number) indicating that the prescription was filled at the central fill pharmacy, in addition to the information required under paragraph (a) of this section.
(c) The requirements of paragraph (a) of this section do not apply when a controlled substance listed in Schedule III, IV, or V is prescribed for administration to an ultimate user who is institutionalized: Provided, That:
(1) Not more than a 34-day supply or 100 dosage units, whichever is less, of the controlled substance listed in Schedule III, IV, or V is dispensed at one time;
(2) The controlled substance listed in Schedule III, IV, or V is not in the possession of the ultimate user prior to administration;
(3) The institution maintains appropriate safeguards and records the proper administration, control, dispensing, and storage of the controlled substance listed in Schedule III, IV, or V; and
(4) The system employed by the pharmacist in filling a prescription is adequate to identify the supplier, the product and the patient, and to set forth the directions for use and cautionary statements, if any, contained in the prescription or required by law.
(d) All prescriptions for controlled substances listed in Schedules III, IV, and V shall be kept in accordance with § 1304.04(h) of this chapter.
[62 FR 13965, Mar. 24, 1997, as amended at 68 FR 37411, June 24, 2003]
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Sec. 1306.25 Transfer between pharmacies of prescription information for Schedules III, IV, and V controlled substances for refill purposes.
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(a) The transfer of original prescription information for a controlled substance listed in Schedule III, IV, or V for the purpose of refill dispensing is permissible between pharmacies on a one-time basis only. However, pharmacies electronically sharing a real-time, online database may transfer up to the maximum refills permitted by law and the prescriber's authorization.
(b) Transfers are subject to the following requirements:
(1) The transfer must be communicated directly between two licensed pharmacists.
(2) The transferring pharmacist must do the following:
(i) Write the word "VOID" on the face of the invalidated prescription; for electronic prescriptions, information that the prescription has been transferred must be added to the prescription record.
(ii) Record on the reverse of the invalidated prescription the name, address, and DEA registration number of the pharmacy to which it was transferred and the name of the pharmacist receiving the prescription information; for electronic prescriptions, such information must be added to the prescription record.
(iii) Record the date of the transfer and the name of the pharmacist transferring the information.
(3) For paper prescriptions and prescriptions received orally and reduced to writing by the pharmacist pursuant to § 1306.21(a), the pharmacist receiving the transferred prescription information must write the word "transfer" on the face of the transferred prescription and reduce to writing all information required to be on a prescription pursuant to § 1306.05 and include:
(i) Date of issuance of original prescription.
(ii) Original number of refills authorized on original prescription.
(iii) Date of original dispensing.
(iv) Number of valid refills remaining and date(s) and locations of previous refill(s).
(v) Pharmacy's name, address, DEA registration number, and prescription number from which the prescription information was transferred.
(vi) Name of pharmacist who transferred the prescription.
(vii) Pharmacy's name, address, DEA registration number, and prescription number from which the prescription was originally filled.
(4) For electronic prescriptions being transferred electronically, the transferring pharmacist must provide the receiving pharmacist with the following information in addition to the original electronic prescription data:
(i) The date of the original dispensing.
(ii) The number of refills remaining and the date(s) and locations of previous refills.
(iii) The transferring pharmacy's name, address, DEA registration number, and prescription number for each dispensing.
(iv) The name of the pharmacist transferring the prescription.
(v) The name, address, DEA registration number, and prescription number from the pharmacy that originally filled the prescription, if different.
(5) The pharmacist receiving a transferred electronic prescription must create an electronic record for the prescription that includes the receiving pharmacist's name and all of the information transferred with the prescription under paragraph (b)(4) of this section.
(c) The original and transferred prescription(s) must be maintained for a period of two years from the date of last refill.
(d) Pharmacies electronically accessing the same prescription record must satisfy all information requirements of a manual mode for prescription transferal.
(e) The procedure allowing the transfer of prescription information for refill purposes is permissible only if allowable under existing State or other applicable law.
[75 FR 16309, Mar. 31, 2010]
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Sec. 1306.26 Dispensing without prescription.
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A controlled substance listed in Schedules II, III, IV, or V which is not a prescription drug as determined under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, may be dispensed by a pharmacist without a prescription to a purchaser at retail, provided that:
(a) Such dispensing is made only by a pharmacist (as defined in part 1300 of this chapter), and not by a nonpharmacist employee even if under the supervision of a pharmacist (although after the pharmacist has fulfilled his professional and legal responsibilities set forth in this section, the actual cash, credit transaction, or delivery, may be completed by a nonpharmacist);
(b) Not more than 240 cc. (8 ounces) of any such controlled substance containing opium, nor more than 120 cc. (4 ounces) of any other such controlled substance nor more than 48 dosage units of any such controlled substance containing opium, nor more than 24 dosage units of any other such controlled substance may be dispensed at retail to the same purchaser in any given 48-hour period;
(c) The purchaser is at least 18 years of age;
(d) The pharmacist requires every purchaser of a controlled substance under this section not known to him to furnish suitable identification (including proof of age where appropriate);
(e) A bound record book for dispensing of controlled substances under this section is maintained by the pharmacist, which book shall contain the name and address of the purchaser, the name and quantity of controlled substance purchased, the date of each purchase, and the name or initials of the pharmacist who dispensed the substance to the purchaser (the book shall be maintained in accordance with the recordkeeping requirement of § 1304.04 of this chapter); and
(f) A prescription is not required for distribution or dispensing of the substance pursuant to any other Federal, State or local law.
(g) Central fill pharmacies may not dispense controlled substances to a purchaser at retail pursuant to this section.
[36 FR 7799, Apr. 24, 1971, as amended at 36 FR 18733, Sept. 21, 1971. Redesignated at 38 FR 26609, Sept. 24, 1973, and further redesignated and amended at 62 FR 13966, Mar. 24, 1997; 68 FR 37411, June 24, 2003]
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Sec. 1306.27 Provision of prescription information between retail pharmacies and central fill pharmacies for initial and refill prescriptions of Schedule III, IV, or V controlled substances.
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Prescription information may be provided to an authorized central fill pharmacy by a retail pharmacy for dispensing purposes. The following requirements shall also apply:
(a) Prescriptions for controlled substances listed in Schedule III, IV or V may be transmitted electronically from a retail pharmacy to a central fill pharmacy including via facsimile. The retail pharmacy transmitting the prescription information must:
(1) Write the word "CENTRAL FILL" on the face of the original prescription and record the name, address, and DEA registration number of the central fill pharmacy to which the prescription has been transmitted and the name of the retail pharmacy pharmacist transmitting the prescription, and the date of transmittal;
(2) Ensure that all information required to be on a prescription pursuant to § 1306.05 of this part is transmitted to the central fill pharmacy (either on the face of the prescription or in the electronic transmission of information);
(3) Indicate in the information transmitted the number of refills already dispensed and the number of refills remaining;
(4) Maintain the original prescription for a period of two years from the date the prescription was last refilled;
(5) Keep a record of receipt of the filled prescription, including the date of receipt, the method of delivery (private, common or contract carrier) and the name of the retail pharmacy employee accepting delivery.
(b) The central fill pharmacy receiving the transmitted prescription must:
(1) Keep a copy of the prescription (if sent via facsimile) or an electronic record of all the information transmitted by the retail pharmacy, including the name, address, and DEA registration number of the retail pharmacy transmitting the prescription;
(2) Keep a record of the date of receipt of the transmitted prescription, the name of the licensed pharmacist filling the prescription, and dates of filling or refilling of the prescription;
(3) Keep a record of the date the filled prescription was delivered to the retail pharmacy and the method of delivery (i.e. private, common or contract carrier).
[68 FR 37411, June 24, 2003]
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General Information
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Sec. 1307.01 Definitions.
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Any term contained in this part shall have the definition set forth in section 102 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 802) or part 1300 of this chapter.
[62 FR 13966, Mar. 24, 1997]
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Sec. 1307.02 Application of State law and other Federal law.
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Nothing in this chapter shall be construed as authorizing or permitting any person to do any act which such person is not authorized or permitted to do under other Federal laws or obligations under international treaties, conventions or protocols, or under the law of the State in which he/she desires to do such act nor shall compliance with such parts be construed as compliance with other Federal or State laws unless expressly provided in such other laws.
[62 FR 13966, Mar. 24, 1997]
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Sec. 1307.03 Exceptions to regulations.
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Any person may apply for an exception to the application of any provision of this chapter by filing a written request with the Office of Diversion Control, Drug Enforcement Administration, stating the reasons for such exception. See the Table of DEA Mailing Addresses in § 1321.01 of this chapter for the current mailing address. The Administrator may grant an exception in his discretion, but in no case shall he/she be required to grant an exception to any person which is otherwise required by law or the regulations cited in this section.
[75 FR 10678, Mar. 9, 2010]
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Special Exceptions for Manufacture and Distribution of Controlled Substances
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Sec. 1307.11 Distribution by dispenser to another practitioner.
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(a) A practitioner who is registered to dispense a controlled substance may distribute (without being registered to distribute) a quantity of such substance to -
(1) Another practitioner for the purpose of general dispensing by the practitioner to patients, provided that -
(i) The practitioner to whom the controlled substance is to be distributed is registered under the Act to dispense that controlled substance;
(ii) The distribution is recorded by the distributing practitioner in accordance with § 1304.22(c) of this chapter and by the receiving practitioner in accordance with § 1304.22(c) of this chapter;
(iii) If the substance is listed in Schedule I or II, an order form is used as required in part 1305 of this chapter; and
(iv) The total number of dosage units of all controlled substances distributed by the practitioner pursuant to this section and § 1301.25 of this chapter during each calendar year in which the practitioner is registered to dispense does not exceed 5 percent of the total number of dosage units of all controlled substances distributed and dispensed by the practitioner during the same calendar year.
(2) [Reserved]
(b) If, during any calendar year in which the practitioner is registered to dispense, the practitioner has reason to believe that the total number of dosage units of all controlled substances which will be distributed by him pursuant to paragraph (a)(1) of this section and § 1301.25 of this chapter will exceed 5 percent of this total number of dosage units of all controlled substances distributed and dispensed by him during that calendar year, the practitioner shall obtain a registration to distribute controlled substances.
(c) The distributions that a registered retail pharmacy makes to automated dispensing systems at long term care facilities for which the retail pharmacy also holds registrations do not count toward the 5 percent limit in paragraphs (a)(1)(iv) and (b) of this section.
[68 FR 41229, July 11, 2003, as amended at 70 FR 25466, May 13, 2005; 79 FR 53565, Sept. 9, 2014]
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Sec. 1307.13 Incidental manufacture of controlled substances.
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Any registered manufacturer who, incidentally but necessarily, manufactures a controlled substance as a result of the manufacture of a controlled substance or basic class of controlled substance for which he is registered and has been issued an individual manufacturing quota pursuant to part 1303 of this chapter (if such substance or class is listed in Schedule I or II) shall be exempt from the requirement of registration pursuant to part 1301 of this chapter and, if such incidentally manufactured substance is listed in Schedule I or II, shall be exempt from the requirement of an individual manufacturing quota pursuant to part 1303 of this chapter, if such substances are disposed of in accordance with part 1317 of this chapter.
[79 FR 53565, Sept. 9, 2014]
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Disposal of Controlled Substances
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Sec. 1307.22 Delivery of surrendered and forfeited controlled substances.
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Any controlled substance surrendered by delivery to the Administration under part 1317 of this chapter or forfeited pursuant to section 511 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 881) may be delivered to any department, bureau, or other agency of the United States or of any State upon proper application addressed to the Office of Diversion Control, Drug Enforcement Administration. See the Table of DEA Mailing Addresses in § 1321.01 of this chapter for the current mailing address. The application shall show the name, address, and official title of the person or agency to whom the controlled drugs are to be delivered, including the name and quantity of the substances desired and the purpose for which intended. The delivery of such controlled drugs shall be ordered by the Administrator, if, in his opinion, there exists a medical or scientific need therefor.
[75 FR 10678, Mar. 9, 2010, as amended at 79 FR 53565, Sept. 9, 2014]
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Special Exempt Persons
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Sec. 1307.31 Native American Church.
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The listing of peyote as a controlled substance in Schedule I does not apply to the nondrug use of peyote in bona fide religious ceremonies of the Native American Church, and members of the Native American Church so using peyote are exempt from registration. Any person who manufactures peyote for or distributes peyote to the Native American Church, however, is required to obtain registration annually and to comply with all other requirements of law.
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Special Exceptions Related to Telemedicine
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Sec. 1307.41 Temporary extension of certain COVID-19 telemedicine flexibilities for prescription of controlled medications.
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(a) This section is in effect until the end of the day December 31, 2024. The authorization granted in paragraph (c) of this section expires at the end of December 31, 2024.
(b) For purposes of this section, a practitioner and a patient have a telemedicine relationship established via COVID-19 telemedicine prescribing flexibilities if:
(1) The practitioner has not conducted an in-person medical evaluation of the patient; and
(2) The practitioner has prescribed one or more controlled substances to the patient
(i) Pursuant to the designation on March 16, 2020, by the Secretary of Health and Human Services, with concurrence of the Acting DEA Administrator, that the telemedicine allowance under 21 U.S.C. 802(54)(D) applies to all schedule II-V controlled substances in all areas of the United States for the duration of the nationwide public health emergency declared by the Secretary of Health and Human Services on January 31, 2020, as a result of the Coronavirus Disease 2019 pursuant to the authority under section 319 of the Public Health Service Act (42 U.S.C. 247); or
(ii) Pursuant to paragraph (c) of this section.
(c) During the period May 12, 2023, through December 31, 2024, a DEA-registered practitioner is authorized to prescribe schedule II-V controlled substances via telemedicine, as defined in 21 CFR 1300.04(i), to a patient without having conducted an in-person medical evaluation of the patient if all of the conditions listed in paragraph (e) of this section are met.
(d) During the period November 12, 2023 through November 11, 2024, a DEA-registered practitioner is authorized to prescribe schedule II-V controlled substances via telemedicine, as defined in § 1300.04(i) of this chapter, to a patient with whom the practitioner has a telemedicine relationship established via COVID-19 telemedicine prescribing flexibilities without having conducted an in-person medical evaluation of a patient if all of the conditions listed in paragraph (e) of this section are met.
(e) A practitioner is only authorized to issue prescriptions for controlled substances pursuant to paragraphs (c) or (d) of this section if all of the following conditions are met:
(1) The prescription is issued for a legitimate medical purpose by a practitioner acting in the usual course of professional practice;
(2) The prescription is issued pursuant to a communication between a practitioner and a patient using an interactive telecommunications system referred to in 42 CFR 410.78(a)(3);
(3) The practitioner is:
(i) Authorized under their registration under 21 CFR 1301.13(e)(1)(iv) to prescribe the basic class of controlled substance specified on the prescription; or
(ii) Exempt from obtaining a registration to dispense controlled substances under 21 U.S.C. 822(d); and
(4) The prescription is consistent with all other requirements of 21 CFR part 1306.
[88 FR 30042, May 10, 2023, as amended at 88 FR 69882, Oct. 10, 2023] Effective Date Note: At 88 FR 30042, May 10, 2023, § 1307.41 was added, effective May 11, 2023 through Nov. 11, 2024. At 88 FR 69879, Oct. 10, 2023, the expiration date was extended to Dec. 31, 2024.
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General Information
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Sec. 1308.01 Scope of this part.
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Schedules of controlled substances established by section 202 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 812) and nonnarcotic substances, chemical preparations, veterinary anabolic steroid implant products, prescription products, anabolic steroid products, and cannabis plant material and products made therefrom that contain tetrahydrocannabinols excluded pursuant to section 201 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 811), as they are changed, updated, and republished from time to time, are set forth in this part.
[81 FR 97021, Dec. 30, 2016]
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Sec. 1308.02 Definitions.
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Any term contained in this part shall have the definition set forth in section 102 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 802) or part 1300 of this chapter.
[62 FR 13967, Mar. 24, 1997]
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Sec. 1308.03 Administration Controlled Substances Code Number.
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(a) Each controlled substance, or basic class thereof, has been assigned an "Administration Controlled Substances Code Number" for purposes of identification of the substances or class on certain Certificates of Registration issued by the Administration pursuant to §§ 1301.35 of this chapter and on certain order forms issued by the Administration pursuant to § 1305.05(d) of this chapter. Applicants for procurement and/or individual manufacturing quotas must include the appropriate code number on the application as required in §§ 1303.12(b) and 1303.22(a) of this chapter. Applicants for import and export permits must include the appropriate code number on the application as required in §§ 1312.12(a) and 1312.22(a) of this chapter. Authorized registrants who desire to import or export a controlled substance for which an import or export permit is not required must include the appropriate Administration Controlled Substances Code Number beneath or beside the name of each controlled substance listed on the DEA Form 236 (Controlled Substance Import/Export Declaration) which is executed for such importation or exportation as required in §§ 1312.18(c) and 1312.27(b) of this chapter.
(b) Except as stated in paragraph (a) of this section, no applicant or registrant is required to use the Administration Controlled Substances Code Number for any purpose.
[38 FR 8254, Mar. 30, 1973. Redesignated at 38 FR 26609, Sept. 24, 1973 and amended at 51 FR 15318, Apr. 23, 1986; 62 FR 13968, Mar. 24, 1997]
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Schedules
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1308.11 Schedule I.§ 1308.11 Schedule I.
(a) Schedule I shall consist of the drugs and other substances,
by whatever official name, common or usual name, chemical name, or
brand name designated, listed in this section. Each drug or
substance has been assigned the DEA Controlled Substances Code
Number set forth opposite it.
(b) Opiates. Unless specifically excepted or unless
listed in another schedule, any of the following opiates, including
their isomers, esters, ethers, salts, and salts of isomers, esters
and ethers, whenever the existence of such isomers, esters, ethers
and salts is possible within the specific chemical designation (for
purposes of 3-methylthiofentanyl only, the term isomer includes the
optical and geometric isomers):
| (1)
Acetyl-alpha-methylfentanyl
(N-[1-(1-methyl-2-phenethyl)-4-piperidinyl]-N-phenylacetamide) |
9815 |
| (2)
Acetylmethadol |
9601 |
| (3) Acetyl
fentanyl (N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)-N-phenylacetamide) |
9821 |
| (4) Acryl fentanyl
(N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)-N-phenylacrylamide; other name:
acryloylfentanyl) |
9811 |
| (5) AH-7921
(3,4-dichloro-N-[(1-dimethylamino) cyclohexylmethyl]benzamide |
9551 |
| (6)
Allylprodine |
9602 |
| (7)
Alphacetylmethadol (except levo-alphacetylmethadol also known as
levo-alpha-acetylmethadol, levomethadyl acetate, or LAAM) |
9603 |
| (8)
Alphameprodine |
9604 |
| (9)
Alphamethadol |
9605 |
| (10)
Alpha-methylfentanyl
(N-[1-(alpha-methyl-beta-phenyl)ethyl-4-piperidyl] propionanilide;
1-(1-methyl-2-phenylethyl)-4-(N-propanilido) piperidine) |
9814 |
| (11)
Alpha-methylthiofentanyl
(N-[1-methyl-2-(2-thienyl)ethyl-4-piperidinyl]-N-phenylpropanamide) |
9832 |
| (12)
Benzethidine |
9606 |
| (13)
Betacetylmethadol |
9607 |
| (14)
Beta-hydroxyfentanyl
(N-[1-(2-hydroxy-2-phenethyl)-4-piperidinyl]-N-phenylpropanamide) |
9830 |
| (15)
Beta-hydroxy-3-methylfentanyl (other name:
N-[1-(2-hydroxy-2-phenethyl)-3-methyl-4-piperidinyl]-N-phenylpropanamide |
9831 |
| (16)
N-[1-[2-hydroxy-2-(thiophen-2-yl)ethyl]piperidin-4-yl]-N-phenylpropionamide
(Other name: beta-Hydroxythiofentanyl) |
9836 |
| (17)
Betameprodine |
9608 |
| (18)
Betamethadol |
9609 |
| (19)
Betaprodine |
9611 |
| (20) Butyryl
fentanyl (N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)-N-phenylbutyramide) |
9822 |
| (21)
Clonitazene |
9612 |
| (22) Cyclopentyl
fentanyl
(N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)-N-phenylcyclopentanecarboxamide) |
9847 |
| (23) Cyclopropyl
fentanyl
(N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)-N-phenylcyclopropanecarboxamide) |
9845 |
| (24)
Dextromoramide |
9613 |
| (25)
Diampromide |
9615 |
| (26)
Diethylthiambutene |
9616 |
| (27)
Difenoxin |
9168 |
| (28)
Dimenoxadol |
9617 |
| (29)
Dimepheptanol |
9618 |
| (30)
Dimethylthiambutene |
9619 |
| (31) Dioxaphetyl
butyrate |
9621 |
| (32)
Dipipanone |
9622 |
| (33)
Ethylmethylthiambutene |
9623 |
| (34)
Etonitazene |
9624 |
| (35)
Etoxeridine |
9625 |
| (36)
4-Fluoroisobutyryl fentanyl
(N-(4-fluorophenyl)-N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)isobutyramide;
other name: para-fluoroisobutyryl fentanyl) |
9824 |
| (37) Furanyl
fentanyl
(N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)-N-phenylfuran-2-carboxamide) |
9834 |
| (38)
Furethidine |
9626 |
| (39)
Hydroxypethidine |
9627 |
| (40) Isobutyryl
fentanyl (N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)-N-phenylisobutyramide) |
9827 |
| (41)
Levomoramide |
9629 |
| (42)
Levophenacylmorphan |
9631 |
| (43) Methoxyacetyl
fentanyl
(2-methoxy-N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)-N-phenylacetamide) |
9825 |
| (44)
3-Methylfentanyl
(N-[3-methyl-1-(2-phenylethyl)-4-piperidyl]-N-phenylpropanamide) |
9813 |
| (45)
3-methylthiofentanyl
(N-[(3-methyl-1-(2-thienyl)ethyl-4-piperidinyl]-N-phenylpropanamide) |
9833 |
| (46)
Morpheridine |
9632 |
| (47) MPPP
(1-methyl-4-phenyl-4-propionoxypiperidine) |
9661 |
| (48) MT-45
(1-cyclohexyl-4-(1,2-diphenylethyl)piperazine) |
(9560) |
| (49)
Noracymethadol |
9633 |
| (50)
Norlevorphanol |
9634 |
| (51)
Normethadone |
9635 |
| (52)
Norpipanone |
9636 |
| (53) Ocfentanil
(N-(2-fluorophenyl)-2-methoxy-N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)acetamide) |
9838 |
| (54)
ortho-Fluorofentanyl
(N-(2-fluorophenyl)-N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)propionamide);
other name: 2-fluorofentanyl) |
9816 |
| (55)
para-Fluorobutyryl fentanyl
(N-(4-fluorophenyl)-N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)butyramide) |
9823 |
| (56)
para-Chloroisobutyryl fentanyl
(N-(4-chlorophenyl)-N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)isobutyramide |
9826 |
| (57) PEPAP
(1-(-2-phenethyl)-4-phenyl-4-acetoxypiperidine |
9663 |
| (58)
Phenadoxone |
9637 |
| (59)
para-Methoxybutyryl fentanyl
(N-(4-methoxyphenyl)-N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)butyramide) |
9837 |
| (60)
Phenomorphan |
9647 |
| (61)
Phenoperidine |
9641 |
| (62)
Piritramide |
9642 |
| (63)
Proheptazine |
9643 |
| (64)
Properidine |
9644 |
| (65) Propiram |
9649 |
| (66)
Racemoramide |
9645 |
| (67)
Tetrahydrofuranyl fentanyl
(N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)-N-phenyltetrahydrofuran-2-carboxamide) |
9843 |
| (68) Thiofentanyl
(N-phenyl-N-[1-(2-thienyl)ethyl-4-piperidinyl]-propanamide |
9835 |
| (69) Tilidine |
9750 |
| (70)
Trimeperidine |
9646 |
| (71) U-47700
(3,4-Dichloro-N-[2-(dimethylamino)cyclohexyl]-N-methylbenzamide) |
9547 |
| (75) Valeryl
fentanyl (N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)-N-phenylpentanamide) |
9840 |
(c) Opium derivatives. Unless specifically excepted or
unless listed in another schedule, any of the following opium
derivatives, its salts, isomers, and salts of isomers whenever the
existence of such salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible
within the specific chemical designation:
| (1)
Acetorphine |
9319 |
| (2)
Acetyldihydrocodeine |
9051 |
| (3)
Benzylmorphine |
9052 |
| (4) Codeine
methylbromide |
9070 |
| (5)
Codeine-N-Oxide |
9053 |
| (6)
Cyprenorphine |
9054 |
| (7)
Desomorphine |
9055 |
| (8)
Dihydromorphine |
9145 |
| (9)
Drotebanol |
9335 |
| (10) Etorphine
(except hydrochloride salt) |
9056 |
| (11) Heroin |
9200 |
| (12)
Hydromorphinol |
9301 |
| (13)
Methyldesorphine |
9302 |
| (14)
Methyldihydromorphine |
9304 |
| (15) Morphine
methylbromide |
9305 |
| (16) Morphine
methylsulfonate |
9306 |
| (17)
Morphine-N-Oxide |
9307 |
| (18)
Myrophine |
9308 |
| (19)
Nicocodeine |
9309 |
| (20)
Nicomorphine |
9312 |
| (21)
Normorphine |
9313 |
| (22)
Pholcodine |
9314 |
| (23) Thebacon |
9315 |
(d) Hallucinogenic substances. Unless specifically
excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any material,
compound, mixture, or preparation, which contains any quantity of
the following hallucinogenic substances, or which contains any of
its salts, isomers, and salts of isomers whenever the existence of
such salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible within the
specific chemical designation (for purposes of this paragraph only,
the term “isomer” includes the optical, position and geometric
isomers):
| (1)
Alpha-ethyltryptamine |
7249 |
| Some trade or
other names: etryptamine; Monase; a-ethyl-1H-indole-3-ethanamine;
3-(2-aminobutyl) indole; a-ET; and AET. |
|
| (2)
4-bromo-2,5-dimethoxy-amphetamine |
7391 |
| Some trade or
other names: 4-bromo-2,5-dimethoxy-a-methylphenethylamine;
4-bromo-2,5-DMA |
|
| (3)
4-Bromo-2,5-dimethoxyphenethylamine |
7392 |
| Some trade or
other names: 2-(4-bromo-2,5-dimethoxyphenyl)-1-aminoethane;
alpha-desmethyl DOB; 2C-B, Nexus. |
|
| (4)
2,5-dimethoxyamphetamine |
7396 |
| Some trade or
other names: 2,5-dimethoxy-a-methylphenethylamine; 2,5-DMA |
|
| (5)
2,5-dimethoxy-4-ethylamphet-amine |
7399 |
| Some trade or
other names: DOET |
|
| (6)
2,5-dimethoxy-4-(n)-propylthiophenethylamine (other name:
2C-T-7) |
7348 |
| (7)
4-methoxyamphetamine |
7411 |
| Some trade or
other names: 4-methoxy-a-methylphenethylamine;
paramethoxyamphetamine, PMA |
|
| (8)
5-methoxy-3,4-methylenedioxy-amphetamine |
7401 |
| (9)
4-methyl-2,5-dimethoxy-amphetamine |
7395 |
| Some trade and
other names: 4-methyl-2,5-dimethoxy-a-methylphenethylamine; “DOM”;
and “STP” |
|
| (10)
3,4-methylenedioxy amphetamine |
7400 |
| (11)
3,4-methylenedioxymethamphetamine (MDMA) |
7405 |
| (12)
3,4-methylenedioxy-N-ethylamphetamine (also known as
N-ethyl-alpha-methyl-3,4(methylenedioxy)-phenethylamine, N-ethyl
MDA, MDE, MDEA |
7404 |
| (13)
N-hydroxy-3,4-methylenedioxyamphetamine (also known as
N-hydroxy-alpha-methyl-3,4(methylenedioxy)-phenethylamine, and
N-hydroxy MDA |
7402 |
| (14)
3,4,5-trimethoxy amphetamine |
7390 |
| (15)
5-methoxy-N,N-dimethyltryptamine Some trade or other names:
5-methoxy-3-[2-(dimethylamino)ethyl]indole; 5-MeO-DMT |
7431 |
| (16)
Alpha-methyltryptamine (other name: AMT) |
7432 |
| (17)
Bufotenine |
7433 |
| Some trade and
other names: 3-(ß-Dimethylaminoethyl)-5-hydroxyindole;
3-(2-dimethylaminoethyl)-5-indolol; N, N-dimethylserotonin;
5-hydroxy-N,N-dimethyltryptamine; mappine |
|
| (18)
Diethyltryptamine |
7434 |
| Some trade and
other names: N,N-Diethyltryptamine; DET |
|
| (19)
Dimethyltryptamine |
7435 |
| Some trade or
other names: DMT |
|
| (20)
5-methoxy-N,N-diisopropyltryptamine (other name: 5-MeO-DIPT) |
7439 |
| (21) Ibogaine |
7260 |
| Some trade and
other names:
7-Ethyl-6,6ß,7,8,9,10,12,13-octahydro-2-methoxy-6,9-methano-5H-pyrido
[1', 2':1,2] azepino [5,4-b] indole; Tabernanthe iboga |
|
| (22) Lysergic acid
diethylamide |
7315 |
| (23)
Marihuana |
7360 |
| (24)
Mescaline |
7381 |
| (25) Parahexyl -
7374; some trade or other names:
3-Hexyl-1-hydroxy-7,8,9,10-tetrahydro-6,6,9-trimethyl-6H-dibenzo[b,d]pyran;
Synhexyl. |
|
| (26) Peyote |
7415 |
| Meaning all
parts of the plant presently classified botanically as Lophophora
williamsii Lemaire, whether growing or not, the seeds thereof, any
extract from any part of such plant, and every compound,
manufacture, salts, derivative, mixture, or preparation of such
plant, its seeds or extracts |
|
| (Interprets 21
USC 812(c), Schedule I(c) (12)) |
|
| (27)
N-ethyl-3-piperidyl benzilate |
7482 |
| (28)
N-methyl-3-piperidyl benzilate |
7484 |
| (29)
Psilocybin |
7437 |
| (30) Psilocyn |
7438 |
| (31)
Tetrahydrocannabinols |
7370 |
| (i) Meaning
tetrahydrocannabinols, except as in paragraph (d)(31)(ii) of this
section, naturally contained in a plant of the genus Cannabis
(cannabis plant), as well as synthetic equivalents of the
substances contained in the cannabis plant, or in the resinous
extractives of such plant, and/or synthetic substances,
derivatives, and their isomers with similar chemical structure and
pharmacological activity to those substances contained in the
plant, such as the following: |
|
| 1 cis or trans
tetrahydrocannabinol, and their optical isomers |
|
| 6 cis or trans
tetrahydrocannabinol, and their optical isomers |
|
| 3, 4 cis or
trans tetrahydrocannabinol, and its optical isomers |
|
| (Since
nomenclature of these substances is not internationally
standardized, compounds of these structures, regardless of
numerical designation of atomic positions covered.) |
|
| (ii)
Tetrahydrocannabinols does not include any material, compound,
mixture, or preparation that falls within the definition of hemp
set forth in 7 U.S.C. 1639o. |
|
| (32) Ethylamine
analog of phencyclidine |
7455 |
| Some trade or
other names: N-ethyl-1-phenylcyclohexylamine,
(1-phenylcyclohexyl)ethylamine, N-(1-phenylcyclohexyl)ethylamine,
cyclohexamine, PCE |
|
| (33) Pyrrolidine
analog of phencyclidine |
7458 |
| Some trade or
other names: 1-(1-phenylcyclohexyl)-pyrrolidine, PCPy, PHP |
|
| (34) Thiophene
analog of phencyclidine |
7470 |
| Some trade or
other names: 1-[1-(2-thienyl)-cyclohexyl]-piperidine,
2-thienylanalog of phencyclidine, TPCP, TCP |
|
| (35)
1-[1-(2-thienyl)cyclohexyl]pyrrolidine |
7473 |
| Some other
names: TCPy |
|
| (36)
4-methylmethcathinone (Mephedrone) |
1248 |
| (37)
3,4-methylenedioxypyrovalerone (MDPV) |
7535 |
| (38)
2-(2,5-Dimethoxy-4-ethylphenyl)ethanamine (2C-E) |
7509 |
| (39)
2-(2,5-Dimethoxy-4-methylphenyl)ethanamine (2C-D) |
7508 |
| (40)
2-(4-Chloro-2,5-dimethoxyphenyl)ethanamine (2C-C) |
7519 |
| (41)
2-(4-Iodo-2,5-dimethoxyphenyl)ethanamine (2C-I) |
7518 |
| (42)
2-[4-(Ethylthio)-2,5-dimethoxyphenyl]ethanamine (2C-T-2) |
7385 |
| (43)
2-[4-(Isopropylthio)-2,5-dimethoxyphenyl]ethanamine (2C-T-4) |
7532 |
| (44)
2-(2,5-Dimethoxyphenyl)ethanamine (2C-H) |
7517 |
| (45)
2-(2,5-Dimethoxy-4-nitro-phenyl)ethanamine (2C-N) |
7521 |
| (46)
2-(2,5-Dimethoxy-4-(n)-propylphenyl)ethanamine (2C-P) |
7524 |
| (47)
3,4-Methylenedioxy-N-methylcathinone (Methylone) |
7540 |
| (48)
(1-pentyl-1H-indol-3-yl)(2,2,3,3-tetramethylcyclopropyl)methanone
(UR-144) |
(7144) |
| (49)
[1-(5-fluoro-pentyl)-1H-indol-3-yl](2,2,3,3-tetramethylcyclopropyl)methanone
(5-fluoro-UR-144, XLR11) |
(7011) |
| (50)
N-(1-adamantyl)-1-pentyl-1H-indazole-3-carboxamide (APINACA,
AKB48) |
(7048) |
| (51) quinolin-8-yl
1-pentyl-1H-indole-3-carboxylate (PB-22; QUPIC) |
(7222) |
| (52) quinolin-8-yl
1-(5-fluoropentyl)-1H-indole-3-carboxylate (5-fluoro-PB-22;
5F-PB-22) |
(7225) |
| (53)
N-(1-amino-3-methyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl)-1-(4-fluorobenzyl)-1H-indazole-3-carboxamide
(AB-FUBINACA) |
(7012) |
| (54)
N-(1-amino-3,3-dimethyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl)-1-pentyl-1H-indazole-3-carboxamide
(ADB-PINACA) |
(7035) |
| (55)
2-(4-iodo-2,5-dimethoxyphenyl)-N-(2-methoxybenzyl)ethanamine
(25I-NBOMe, 2C-I-NBOMe) |
(7538) |
| (56)
2-(4-chloro-2,5-dimethoxyphenyl)-N-(2-methoxybenzyl)ethanamine
(25C-NBOMe, 2C-C-NBOMe) |
(7537) |
| (57)
2-(4-bromo-2,5-dimethoxyphenyl)-N-(2-methoxybenzyl)ethanamine
(25B-NBOMe, 2C-B-NBOMe) |
(7536) |
| (58) Marihuana
Extract |
7350 |
| Meaning an
extract containing one or more cannabinoids that has been derived
from any plant of the genus Cannabis, containing greater than 0.3%
delta-9-tetrahydrocannabinol on a dry weight basis, other than the
separated resin (whether crude or purified) obtained from the
plant. |
|
| (59)
4-methyl-N-ethylcathinone (4-MEC) |
(1249) |
| (60)
4-methyl-alpha-pyrrolidinopropiophenone (4-MePPP) |
(7498) |
| (61)
alpha-pyrrolidinopentiophenone (a-PVP) |
(7545) |
| (62)
1-(1,3-benzodioxol-5-yl)-2-(methylamino)butan-1-one (butylone,
bk-MBDB) |
(7541) |
| (63)
2-(methylamino)-1-phenylpentan-1-one (pentedrone) |
(1246) |
| (64)
1-(1,3-benzodioxol-5-yl)-2-(methylamino)pentan-1-one (pentylone,
bk-MBDP) |
(7542) |
| (65)
4-fluoro-N-methylcathinone (4-FMC; flephedrone) |
(1238) |
| (66)
3-fluoro-N-methylcathinone (3-FMC) |
(1233) |
| (67)
1-(naphthalen-2-yl)-2-(pyrrolidin-1-yl)pentan-1-one
(naphyrone) |
(1258) |
| (68)
alpha-pyrrolidinobutiophenone (a-PBP) |
(7546) |
| (69)
N-(1-amino-3-methyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl)-1-(cyclohexylmethyl)-1H-indazole-3-carboxamide
(AB-CHMINACA) |
(7031) |
| (70)
N-(1-amino-3-methyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl)-1-pentyl-1H-indazole-3-carboxamide
(AB-PINACA) |
(7023) |
| (71)
[1-(5-fluoropentyl)-1H-indazol-3-yl](naphthalen-1-yl)methanone
(THJ-2201) |
(7024) |
| (72)
N-(1-amino-3,3-dimethyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl)-1-(cyclohexylmethyl)-1H-indazole-3-carboxamide
(MAB-CHMINACA; ADB-CHMINACA) |
(7032) |
| (73) methyl
2-(1-(5-fluoropentyl)-1H-indazole-3-carboxamido)-3,3-dimethylbutanoate
(Other names: 5F-ADB; 5F-MDMB-PINACA) |
7034 |
| (74) methyl
2-(1-(5-fluoropentyl)-1H-indazole-3-carboxamido)-3-methylbutanoate
(Other names: 5F-AMB) |
7033 |
| (75)
N-(adamantan-1-yl)-1-(5-fluoropentyl)-1H-indazole-3-carboxamide
(Other names: 5F-APINACA, 5F-AKB48) |
7049 |
| (76)
N-(1-amino-3,3-dimethyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl)-1-(4-fluorobenzyl)-1H-indazole-3-carboxamide
(Other names: ADB-FUBINACA) |
7010 |
| (77) methyl
2-(1-(cyclohexylmethyl)-1H-indole-3-carboxamido)-3,3-dimethylbutanoate
(Other names: MDMB-CHMICA, MMB-CHMINACA) |
7042 |
| (78) methyl
2-(1-(4-fluorobenzyl)-1H-indazole-3-carboxamido)-3,3-dimethylbutanoate
(Other names: MDMB-FUBINACA) |
7020 |
| (79) methyl
2-(1-(4-fluorobenzyl)-1H-indazole-3-carboxamido)-3-methylbutanoate,
(FUB-AMB, MMB-FUBINACA, AMB-FUBINACA) |
(7021) |
| (80)
1-(1,3-benzodioxol-5-yl)-2-(ethylamino)propan-1-one (ethylone) |
7547 |
(e) Depressants. Unless specifically excepted or unless
listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or
preparation which contains any quantity of the following substances
having a depressant effect on the central nervous system, including
its salts, isomers, and salts of isomers whenever the existence of
such salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible within the
specific chemical designation:
| (1)
gamma-hydroxybutyric acid (some other names include GHB;
gamma-hydroxybutyrate; 4-hydroxybutyrate; 4-hydroxybutanoic acid;
sodium oxybate; sodium oxybutyrate) |
2010 |
| (2)
Mecloqualone |
2572 |
| (3)
Methaqualone |
2565 |
(f) Stimulants. Unless specifically excepted or unless
listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or
preparation which contains any quantity of the following substances
having a stimulant effect on the central nervous system, including
its salts, isomers, and salts of isomers:
| (1) Aminorex (Some
other names: aminoxaphen; 2-amino-5-phenyl-2-oxazoline; or
4,5-dihydro-5-phenly-2-oxazolamine) |
1585 |
| (2)
N-Benzylpiperazine (some other names: BZP, 1-benzylpiperazine) |
7493 |
| (3) Cathinone |
1235 |
| Some trade or
other names: 2-amino-1-phenyl-1-propanone,
alpha-aminopropiophenone, 2-aminopropiophenone, and
norephedrone |
|
| (4)
Fenethylline |
1503 |
| (5) Methcathinone
(Some other names: 2-(methylamino)-propiophenone;
alpha-(methylamino)propiophenone;
2-(methylamino)-1-phenylpropan-1-one;
alpha-N-methylaminopropiophenone; monomethylpropion; ephedrone;
N-methylcathinone; methylcathinone; AL-464; AL-422; AL-463 and
UR1432), its salts, optical isomers and salts of optical
isomers |
1237 |
| (6)
(±)cis-4-methylaminorex
((±)cis-4,5-dihydro-4-methyl-5-phenyl-2-oxazolamine) |
1590 |
| (7)
N-ethylamphetamine |
1475 |
| (8)
N,N-dimethylamphetamine (also known as
N,N-alpha-trimethyl-benzeneethanamine;
N,N-alpha-trimethylphenethylamine) |
1480 |
(g) Cannabimimetic agents. Unless specifically exempted
or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound,
mixture, or preparation which contains any quantity of the
following substances, or which contains their salts, isomers, and
salts of isomers whenever the existence of such salts, isomers, and
salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical
designation:
| (1)
5-(1,1-dimethylheptyl)-2-[(1R,3S)-3-hydroxycyclohexyl]-phenol
(CP-47,497) |
7297 |
| (2)
5-(1,1-dimethyloctyl)-2-[(1R,3S)-3-hydroxycyclohexyl]-phenol
(cannabicyclohexanol or CP-47,497 C8-homolog) |
7298 |
| (3)
1-pentyl-3-(1-naphthoyl)indole (JWH-018 and AM678) |
7118 |
| (4)
1-butyl-3-(1-naphthoyl)indole (JWH-073) |
7173 |
| (5)
1-hexyl-3-(1-naphthoyl)indole (JWH-019) |
7019 |
| (6)
1-[2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl]-3-(1-naphthoyl)indole (JWH-200) |
7200 |
| (7)
1-pentyl-3-(2-methoxyphenylacetyl)indole (JWH-250) |
6250 |
| (8)
1-pentyl-3-[1-(4-methoxynaphthoyl)]indole (JWH-081) |
7081 |
| (9)
1-pentyl-3-(4-methyl-1-naphthoyl)indole (JWH-122) |
7122 |
| (10)
1-pentyl-3-(4-chloro-1-naphthoyl)indole (JWH-398) |
7398 |
| (11)
1-(5-fluoropentyl)-3-(1-naphthoyl)indole (AM2201) |
7201 |
| (12)
1-(5-fluoropentyl)-3-(2-iodobenzoyl)indole (AM694) |
7694 |
| (13)
1-pentyl-3-[(4-methoxy)-benzoyl]indole (SR-19 and RCS-4) |
7104 |
| (14)
1-cyclohexylethyl-3-(2-methoxyphenylacetyl)indole 7008 (SR-18 and
RCS-8) |
7008 |
| (15)
1-pentyl-3-(2-chlorophenylacetyl)indole (JWH-203) |
7203 |
(h) Temporary listing of substances subject to emergency
scheduling. Any material, compound, mixture or preparation
which contains any quantity of the following substances:
| (1)-(29)
[Reserved] |
|
| (30)
Fentanyl-related substances, their isomers, esters, ethers, salts
and salts of isomers, esters and ethers |
9850 |
(i) Fentanyl-related substance means any substance not otherwise
listed under another Administration Controlled Substance Code
Number, and for which no exemption or approval is in effect under
section 505 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act [21 U.S.C.
355], that is structurally related to fentanyl by one or more of
the following modifications:
(A) Replacement of the phenyl portion of the phenethyl group by
any monocycle, whether or not further substituted in or on the
monocycle;
(B) Substitution in or on the phenethyl group with alkyl,
alkenyl, alkoxyl, hydroxyl, halo, haloalkyl, amino or nitro
groups;
(C) Substitution in or on the piperidine ring with alkyl,
alkenyl, alkoxyl, ester, ether, hydroxyl, halo, haloalkyl, amino or
nitro groups;
(D) Replacement of the aniline ring with any aromatic monocycle
whether or not further substituted in or on the aromatic monocycle;
and/or
(E) Replacement of the N-propionyl group by another acyl
group.
(ii) This definition includes, but is not limited to, the
following substances: (A)-(B) [Reserved]
| (31)
Naphthalen-1-yl 1-(5-fluoropentyl)-1H-indole-3-carboxylate, its
optical, positional, and geometric isomers, salts and salts of
isomers (Other names: NM2201; CBL2201) |
(7221) |
| (32)
N-(1-amino-3-methyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl)-1-(5-fluoropentyl)-1H-indazole-3-carboxamide,
its optical, positional, and geometric isomers, salts and salts of
isomers (Other names: 5F-AB-PINACA) |
(7025) |
| (33)
1-(4-cyanobutyl)-N-(2-phenylpropan-2-yl)-1H-indazole-3-carboxamide,
its optical, positional, and geometric isomers, salts and salts of
isomers (Other names: 4-CN-CUMYL-BUTINACA; 4-cyano-CUMYL-BUTINACA;
4-CN-CUMYL BINACA; CUMYL-4CN-BINACA; SGT-78) |
(7089) |
| (34) methyl
2-(1-(cyclohexylmethyl)-1H-indole-3-carboxamido)-3-methylbutanoate,
its optical, positional, and geometric isomers, salts and salts of
isomers (Other names: MMB-CHMICA, AMB-CHMICA) |
(7044) |
| (35)
1-(5-fluoropentyl)-N-(2-phenylpropan-2-yl)-1H-pyrrolo[2,3-b]pyridine-3-carboxamide,
its optical, positional, and geometric isomers, salts and salts of
isomers (Other names: 5F-CUMYL-P7AICA) |
(7085) |
| (36)
N-Ethylpentylone, its optical, positional, and geometric isomers,
salts and salts of isomers (Other names: ephylone,
1-(1,3-benzodioxol-5-yl)-2-(ethylamino)-pentan-1-one) |
(7543) |
| (37) ethyl
2-(1-(5-fluoropentyl)-1H-indazole-3-carboxamido)-3,3-dimethylbutanoate,
its optical, positional, and geometric isomers, salts and salts of
isomers (trivial name: 5F-EDMB-PINACA) |
7036 |
| (38) methyl
2-(1-(5-fluoropentyl)-1H-indole-3-carboxamido)-3,3-dimethylbutanoate,
its optical, positional, and geometric isomers, salts and salts of
isomers (trivial name: 5F-MDMB-PICA) |
7041 |
| (39)
N-(adamantan-1-yl)-1-(4-fluorobenzyl)-1H-indazole-3-carboxamide,
its optical, positional, and geometric isomers, salts and salts of
isomers (trivial names: FUB-AKB48; FUB-APINACA; AKB48
N-(4-FLUOROBENZYL)) |
7047 |
| (40)
1-(5-fluoropentyl)-N-(2-phenylpropan-2-yl)-1H-indazole-3-carboxamide,
its optical, positional, and geometric isomers, salts and salts of
isomers (trivial names: 5F-CUMYL-PINACA; SGT-25) |
7083 |
| (41)
(1-(4-fluorobenzyl)-1H-indol-3-yl)(2,2,3,3-tetramethylcyclopropyl)
methanone, its optical, positional, and geometric isomers, salts
and salts of isomers (trivial name: FUB-144) |
7014 |
| (42)
N-Ethylhexedrone, its optical, positional, and geometric isomers,
salts and salts of isomers (Other name:
2-(ethylamino)-1-phenylhexan-1-one) |
7246 |
| (43)
alpha-Pyrrolidinohexanophenone, its optical, positional, and
geometric isomers, salts and salts of isomers (Other names: a-PHP;
alpha-pyrrolidinohexiophenone;
1-phenyl-2-(pyrrolidin-1-yl)hexan-1-one) |
7544 |
| (44)
4-Methyl-alpha-ethylaminopentiophenone, its optical, positional,
and geometric isomers, salts and salts of isomers (Other names:
4-MEAP; 2-(ethylamino)-1-(4-methylphenyl)pentan-1-one) |
7245 |
| (45)
4'-Methyl-alpha-pyrrolidinohexiophenone, its optical, positional,
and geometric isomers, salts and salts of isomers (Other names:
MPHP; 4'-methyl-alpha-pyrrolidinohexanophenone;
1-(4-methylphenyl)-2-(pyrrolidin-1-yl)hexan-1-one) |
7446 |
| (46)
alpha-Pyrrolidinoheptaphenone, its optical, positional, and
geometric isomers, salts and salts of isomers (Other names: PV8;
1-phenyl-2-(pyrrolidin-1-yl)heptan-1-one) |
7548 |
| (47)
4'-Chloro-alpha-pyrrolidinovalerophenone, its optical, positional,
and geometric isomers, salts and salts of isomers (Other names:
4-chloro-a-PVP; 4'-chloro-alpha-pyrrolidinopentiophenone;
1-(4-chlorophenyl)-2-(pyrrolidin-1-yl)pentan-1-one) |
7443 |
| (48)
N,N-diethyl-2-(2-(4
isopropoxybenzyl)-5-nitro-1H-benzimidazol-1-yl)ethan-1-amine, its
isomers, esters, ethers, salts and salts of isomers, esters and
ethers (Other names: isotonitazene;
N,N-diethyl-2-<4-(1-methylethoxy)phenyl]methyl]-5-nitro-1H-benzimidazole-1-ethanamine) |
9614 |
[39 FR 22141, June 20, 1974] Editorial Note:For Federal Register
citations affecting § 1308.11, see the List of CFR Sections
Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed
volume and at www.govinfo.gov. Effective Date Notes:1. At 83
FR 31882, July 10, 2018, § 1308.11 was amended by adding paragraphs
(h)(31) through (h)(35) effective July 10, 2018, through July 10,
2020. At 85 FR 42296, July 13, 2020, the effective period was
extended to July 10, 2021, effective July 10, 2020.
2. At 83 FR 44478, Aug. 31, 2018, § 1308.11 was amended by
adding paragraph (h)(36) effective Aug. 31, 2018, through Aug. 31,
2020. At 85 FR 52915, Aug. 27, 2020, the effective period was
extended to Aug. 31, 2021.
3. At 84 FR 15511, Apr. 16, 2019, § 1308.11 was amended by
adding paragraphs (h)(37) through (h)(41) effective Apr. 16, 2019,
through Apr. 16, 2021.
4. At 84 FR 34297, July 17, 2019, § 1308.11 was amended by
adding paragraphs (h)(42) through (h)(47) effective July 18, 2019,
through July 18, 2021.
5.At 83 FR 5191, Feb. 6, 2018, § 1308.11 was amended by adding
paragraph (h)(30), effective Feb. 6, 2018, through Feb. 6, 2020.
Effective Feb. 6, 2020, Congress extended the effective period for
paragraph (h)(30) until May 6, 2021, by Public Law 116-114.
6. At 85 51346, Aug. 20, 2020, § 1308.11 was amended by adding
paragraph (h)(48), effective Aug. 20, 2020, through Aug. 20,
2022.
|
|
|
Sec. 1308.12 Schedule II.
|
|
(a) Schedule I shall consist of the drugs and other substances, by whatever official name, common or usual name, chemical name, or brand name designated, listed in this section. Each drug or substance has been assigned the DEA Controlled Substances Code Number set forth opposite it.
(b) Opiates. Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any of the following opiates, including their isomers, esters, ethers, salts, and salts of isomers, esters and ethers, whenever the existence of such isomers, esters, ethers and salts is possible within the specific chemical designation (for purposes of 3-methylthiofentanyl only, the term isomer includes the optical and geometric isomers):
|
|
|
|---|
| (1) Acetyl-alpha-methylfentanyl (N-[1-(1-methyl-2-phenethyl)-4-piperidinyl]-N-phenylacetamide) | 9815
| | (2) Acetylmethadol | 9601
| | (3) Acetyl fentanyl (N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)-N-phenylacetamide) | 9821
| | (4) Acryl fentanyl (N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)-N-phenylacrylamide; also known as acryloylfentanyl) | 9811
| | (5) AH-7921 (3,4-dichloro-N-[(1-dimethylamino)cyclohexylmethyl]benzamide) | 9551
| | (6) Allylprodine | 9602
| | (7) Alphacetylmethadol (except levo-alphacetylmethadol also known as levo-alpha-acetylmethadol, levomethadyl acetate, or LAAM) | 9603
| | (8) Alphameprodine | 9604
| | (9) Alphamethadol | 9605
| | (10) alpha'-Methyl butyryl fentanyl (2-methyl-N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)-N-phenylbutanamide) | 9864
| | (11) alpha-Methylfentanyl (N-[1-(alpha-methyl-beta-phenyl)ethyl-4-piperidyl]propionanilide; 1-(1-methyl-2-phenylethyl)-4-(N-propanilido)piperidine) | 9814
| | (12) alpha-Methylthiofentanyl (N-[1-methyl-2-(2-thienyl)ethyl-4-piperidinyl]-N-phenylpropanamide) | 9832
| | (13) Benzethidine | 9606
| | (14) Betacetylmethadol | 9607
| | (15) beta-Hydroxyfentanyl (N-[1-(2-hydroxy-2-phenethyl)-4-piperidinyl]-N-phenylpropanamide) | 9830
| | (16) beta-Hydroxy-3-methylfentanyl (N-[1-(2-hydroxy-2-phenylethyl)-3-methyl-4-piperidinyl]-N-phenylpropanamide) | 9831
| | (17) beta-Hydroxythiofentanyl (N-[1-[2-hydroxy-2-(thiophen-2-yl)ethyl]piperidin-4-yl]-N-phenylpropionamide) | 9836
| | (18) Betameprodine | 9608
| | (19) Betamethadol | 9609
| | (20) beta-Methyl fentanyl (N-phenyl-N-(1-(2-phenylpropyl)piperidin-4-yl)propionamide; also known as [beta]-methyl fentanyl) | 9856
| | (21) beta'-Phenyl fentanyl (N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)-N,3-diphenylpropanamide; also known as [beta]'-phenyl fentanyl; 3-phenylpropanoyl fentanyl) | 9842
| | (22) Betaprodine | 9611
| | (23) brorphine (1-(1-(1-(4-bromophenyl)ethyl)piperidin-4-yl)-1,3-dihydro-2H-benzo[d]imidazol-2-one) | 9098
| | (24) Butyryl fentanyl (N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)-N-phenylbutyramide) | 9822
| | (25) Clonitazene | 9612
| | (26) Crotonyl fentanyl ((E)-N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)-N-phenylbut-2-enamide) | 9844
| | (27) Cyclopentyl fentanyl (N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)-N-phenylcyclopentanecarboxamide) | 9847
| | (28) Cyclopropyl fentanyl (N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)-N-phenylcyclopropanecarboxamide) | 9845
| | (29) Dextromoramide | 9613
| | (30) Diampromide | 9615
| | (31) Diethylthiambutene | 9616
| | (32) Difenoxin | 9168
| | (33) Dimenoxadol | 9617
| | (34) Dimepheptanol | 9618
| | (35) 2',5'-Dimethoxyfentanyl (N-(1-(2,5-dimethoxyphenethyl)piperidin-4-yl)-N-phenylpropionamide) | 9861
| | (36) Dimethylthiambutene | 9619
| | (37) Dioxaphetyl butyrate | 9621
| | (38) Dipipanone | 9622
| | (39) Ethylmethylthiambutene | 9623
| | (40) Etonitazene | 9624
| | (41) Etoxeridine | 9625
| | (42) Fentanyl carbamate (ethyl (1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)(phenyl)carbamate) | 9851
| | (43) 4-Fluoroisobutyryl fentanyl (N-(4-fluorophenyl)-N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)isobutyramide; also known as para-fluoroisobutyryl fentanyl) | 9824
| | (44) 2'-Fluoro ortho-fluorofentanyl (N-(1-(2-fluorophenethyl)piperidin-4-yl)-N-(2-fluorophenyl)propionamide; also known as 2'-fluoro 2-fluorofentanyl) | 9855
| | (45) Furanyl fentanyl (N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)-N-phenylfuran-2-carboxamide) | 9834
| | (46) 3-Furanyl fentanyl (N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)-N-phenylfuran-3-carboxamide) | 9860
| | (47) Furethidine | 9626
| | (48) Hydroxypethidine | 9627
| | (49) Isobutyryl fentanyl (N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)-N-phenylisobutyramide) | 9827
| | (50) Isotonitazene (N,N-diethyl-2-(2-(4-isopropoxybenzyl)-5-nitro-1H-benzimidazol-1-yl)ethan-1-amine) | 9614
| | (51) Isovaleryl fentanyl (3-methyl-N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)-N-phenylbutanamide) | 9862
| | (52) Ketobemidone | 9628
| | (53) Levomoramide | 9629
| | (54) Levophenacylmorphan | 9631
| | (55) meta-Fluorofentanyl (N-(3-fluorophenyl)-N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)propionamide) | 9857
| | (56) meta-Fluoroisobutyryl fentanyl (N-(3-fluorophenyl)-N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)isobutyramide) | 9858
| | (57) Methoxyacetyl fentanyl (2-methoxy-N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)-N-phenylacetamide) | 9825
| | (58) 4'-Methyl acetyl fentanyl (N-(1-(4-methylphenethyl)piperidin-4-yl)-N-phenylacetamide) | 9819
| | (59) 3-Methylfentanyl (N-[3-methyl-1-(2-phenylethyl)-4-piperidyl]-N-phenylpropanamide) | 9813
| | (60) 3-Methylthiofentanyl (N-[3-methyl-1-(2-thienylethyl)-4-piperidinyl]-N-phenylpropanamide) | 9833
| | (61) Metonitazene (N,N-diethyl-2-(2-(4-methoxybenzyl)-5-nitro-1H-benzimidazol-1-yl)ethan-1-amine) | 9757
| | (62) Morpheridine | 9632
| | (63) MPPP (1-methyl-4-phenyl-4-propionoxypiperidine) | 9661
| | (64) MT-45 (1-cyclohexyl-4-(1,2-diphenylethyl)piperazine) | 9560
| | (65) Noracymethadol | 9633
| | (66) Norlevorphanol | 9634
| | (67) Normethadone | 9635
| | (68) Norpipanone | 9636
| | (69) Ocfentanil (N-(2-fluorophenyl)-2-methoxy-N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)acetamide) | 9838
| | (70) ortho-Fluoroacryl fentanyl (N-(2-fluorophenyl)-N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)acrylamide) | 9852
| | (71) ortho-Fluorobutyryl fentanyl (N-(2-fluorophenyl)-N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)butyramide; also known as 2-fluorobutyryl fentanyl) | 9846
| | (72) ortho-Fluorofentanyl (N-(2-fluorophenyl)-N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)propionamide); also known as 2-fluorofentanyl) | 9816
| | (73) ortho-Fluorofuranyl fentanyl (N-(2-fluorophenyl)-N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)furan-2-carboxamide) | 9863
| | (74) ortho-Fluoroisobutyryl fentanyl (N-(2-fluorophenyl)-N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)isobutyramide) | 9853
| | (75) ortho-Methyl acetylfentanyl (N-(2-methylphenyl)-N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)acetamide; also known as 2-methyl acetylfentanyl) | 9848
| | (76) ortho-Methyl methoxyacetyl fentanyl (2-methoxy-N-(2-methylphenyl)-N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)acetamide; also known as 2-methyl methoxyacetyl fentanyl) | 9820
| | (77) para-Chloroisobutyryl fentanyl (N-(4-chlorophenyl)-N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)isobutyramide) | 9826
| | (78) para-Fluorobutyryl fentanyl (N-(4-fluorophenyl)-N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)butyramide) | 9823
| | (79) para-Fluorofentanyl (N-(4-fluorophenyl)-N-[1-(2-phenylethyl)-4-piperidinyl]propanamide) | 9812
| | (80) para-Fluoro furanyl fentanyl (N-(4-fluorophenyl)-N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)furan-2-carboxamide) | 9854
| | (81) para-Methoxybutyryl fentanyl (N-(4-methoxyphenyl)-N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)butyramide) | 9837
| | (82) para-Methoxyfuranyl fentanyl (N-(4-methoxyphenyl)-N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)furan-2-carboxamide | 9859
| | (83) para-Methylcyclopropyl fentanyl (N-(4-methylphenyl)-N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)cyclopropanecarboxamide) | 9865
| | (84) para-Methylfentanyl (N-(4-methylphenyl)-N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)propionamide; also known as 4-methylfentanyl) | 9817
| | (85) PEPAP (1-(2-phenylethyl)-4-phenyl-4-acetoxypiperidine) | 9663
| | (86) Phenadoxone | 9637
| | (87) Phenampromide | 9638
| | (88) Phenomorphan | 9647
| | (89) Phenoperidine | 9641
| | (90) Phenyl fentanyl (N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)-N-phenylbenzamide; also known as benzoyl fentanyl) | 9841
| | (91) Piritramide | 9642
| | (92) Proheptazine | 9643
| | (93) Properidine | 9644
| | (94) Propiram | 9649
| | (95) Racemoramide | 9645
| | (96) Tetrahydrofuranyl fentanyl (N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)-N-phenyltetrahydrofuran-2-carboxamide) | 9843
| | (97) Thiofentanyl (N-phenyl-N-[1-(2-thienyl)ethyl-4-piperidinyl]propanamide) | 9835
| | (98) Thiofuranyl fentanyl (N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)-N-phenylthiophene-2-carboxamide; also known as 2-thiofuranyl fentanyl; thiophene fentanyl) | 9839
| | (99) Tilidine | 9750
| | (100) Trimeperidine | 9646
| | (101) U-47700 (3,4-dichloro-N-[2-(dimethylamino)cyclohexyl]-N-methylbenzamide) | 9547
| | (102) Valeryl fentanyl (N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)-N-phenylpentanamide) | 9840
| | (103) Zipeprol (1-methoxy-3-[4-(2-methoxy-2-phenylethyl)piperazin-1-yl]-1-phenylpropan-2-ol) | 9873
|
(c) Opium derivatives. Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any of the following opium derivatives, its salts, isomers, and salts of isomers whenever the existence of such salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation:
| (1) Acetorphine | 9319
| | (2) Acetyldihydrocodeine | 9051
| | (3) Benzylmorphine | 9052
| | (4) Codeine methylbromide | 9070
| | (5) Codeine-N-Oxide | 9053
| | (6) Cyprenorphine | 9054
| | (7) Desomorphine | 9055
| | (8) Dihydromorphine | 9145
| | (9) Drotebanol | 9335
| | (10) Etorphine (except hydrochloride salt) | 9056
| | (11) Heroin | 9200
| | (12) Hydromorphinol | 9301
| | (13) Methyldesorphine | 9302
| | (14) Methyldihydromorphine | 9304
| | (15) Morphine methylbromide | 9305
| | (16) Morphine methylsulfonate | 9306
| | (17) Morphine-N-Oxide | 9307
| | (18) Myrophine | 9308
| | (19) Nicocodeine | 9309
| | (20) Nicomorphine | 9312
| | (21) Normorphine | 9313
| | (22) Pholcodine | 9314
| | (23) Thebacon | 9315 |
(d) Hallucinogenic substances. Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or preparation, which contains any quantity of the following hallucinogenic substances, or which contains any of its salts, isomers, and salts of isomers whenever the existence of such salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation (for purposes of this paragraph only, the term "isomer" includes the optical, position and geometric isomers):
| (1) Alpha-ethyltryptamine | 7249
| | Some trade or other names: etryptamine; Monase; [alpha]-ethyl-1H-indole-3-ethanamine; 3-(2-aminobutyl) indole; [alpha]-ET; and AET.
| | | (2) 4-bromo-2,5-dimethoxy-amphetamine | 7391
| | Some trade or other names: 4-bromo-2,5-dimethoxy-[alpha]-methylphenethylamine; 4-bromo-2,5-DMA
| | | (3) 4-Bromo-2,5-dimethoxyphenethylamine | 7392
| | Some trade or other names: 2-(4-bromo-2,5-dimethoxyphenyl)-1-aminoethane; alpha-desmethyl DOB; 2C-B, Nexus.
| | | (4) 2,5-dimethoxyamphetamine | 7396
| | Some trade or other names: 2,5-dimethoxy-[alpha]-methylphenethylamine; 2,5-DMA
| | | (5) 2,5-dimethoxy-4-ethylamphet-amine | 7399
| | Some trade or other names: DOET
| | | (6) 2,5-dimethoxy-4-(n)-propylthiophenethylamine (other name: 2C-T-7) | 7348
| | (7) 4-methoxyamphetamine | 7411
| | Some trade or other names: 4-methoxy-[alpha]-methylphenethylamine; paramethoxyamphetamine, PMA
| | | (8) 5-methoxy-3,4-methylenedioxy-amphetamine | 7401
| | (9) 4-methyl-2,5-dimethoxy-amphetamine | 7395
| | Some trade and other names: 4-methyl-2,5-dimethoxy-[alpha]-methylphenethylamine; "DOM"; and "STP"
| | | (10) 3,4-methylenedioxy amphetamine | 7400
| | (11) 3,4-methylenedioxymethamphetamine (MDMA) | 7405
| | (12) 3,4-methylenedioxy-N-ethylamphetamine (also known as N-ethyl-alpha-methyl-3,4(methylenedioxy)-phenethylamine, N-ethyl MDA, MDE, MDEA | 7404
| | (13) N-hydroxy-3,4-methylenedioxyamphetamine (also known as N-hydroxy-alpha-methyl-3,4(methylenedioxy)-phenethylamine, and N-hydroxy MDA | 7402
| | (14) 3,4,5-trimethoxy amphetamine | 7390
| | (15) 5-methoxy-N,N-dimethyltryptamine Some trade or other names: 5-methoxy-3-[2-(dimethylamino)ethyl]indole; 5-MeO-DMT | 7431
| | (16) Alpha-methyltryptamine (other name: AMT) | 7432
| | (17) Bufotenine | 7433
| | Some trade and other names: 3-([beta]-Dimethylaminoethyl)-5-hydroxyindole; 3-(2-dimethylaminoethyl)-5-indolol; N, N-dimethylserotonin; 5-hydroxy-N,N-dimethyltryptamine; mappine
| | | (18) Diethyltryptamine | 7434
| | Some trade and other names: N,N-Diethyltryptamine; DET
| | | (19) Dimethyltryptamine | 7435
| | Some trade or other names: DMT
| | | (20) 5-methoxy-N,N-diisopropyltryptamine (other name: 5-MeO-DIPT) | 7439
| | (21) Ibogaine | 7260
| | Some trade and other names: 7-Ethyl-6,6[beta],7,8,9,10,12,13-octahydro-2-methoxy-6,9-methano-5H-pyrido [1', 2':1,2] azepino [5,4-b] indole; Tabernanthe iboga
| | | (22) Lysergic acid diethylamide | 7315
| | (23) Marihuana | 7360
| | (24) Mescaline | 7381
| | (25) Parahexyl - 7374; some trade or other names: 3-Hexyl-1-hydroxy-7,8,9,10-tetrahydro-6,6,9-trimethyl-6H-dibenzo[b,d]pyran; Synhexyl.
| | | (26) Peyote | 7415
| | Meaning all parts of the plant presently classified botanically as Lophophora williamsii Lemaire, whether growing or not, the seeds thereof, any extract from any part of such plant, and every compound, manufacture, salts, derivative, mixture, or preparation of such plant, its seeds or extracts
| | | (Interprets 21 USC 812(c), Schedule I(c) (12))
| | | (27) N-ethyl-3-piperidyl benzilate | 7482
| | (28) N-methyl-3-piperidyl benzilate | 7484
| | (29) Psilocybin | 7437
| | (30) Psilocyn | 7438
| | (31) Tetrahydrocannabinols | 7370
| | (i) Meaning tetrahydrocannabinols, except as in paragraph (d)(31)(ii) of this section, naturally contained in a plant of the genus Cannabis (cannabis plant), as well as synthetic equivalents of the substances contained in the cannabis plant, or in the resinous extractives of such plant, and/or synthetic substances, derivatives, and their isomers with similar chemical structure and pharmacological activity to those substances contained in the plant, such as the following:
| | | 1 cis or trans tetrahydrocannabinol, and their optical isomers
| | | 6 cis or trans tetrahydrocannabinol, and their optical isomers
| | | 3, 4 cis or trans tetrahydrocannabinol, and its optical isomers
| | | (Since nomenclature of these substances is not internationally standardized, compounds of these structures, regardless of numerical designation of atomic positions covered.)
| | | (ii) Tetrahydrocannabinols does not include any material, compound, mixture, or preparation that falls within the definition of hemp set forth in 7 U.S.C. 1639o.
| | | (32) Ethylamine analog of phencyclidine | 7455
| | Some trade or other names: N-ethyl-1-phenylcyclohexylamine, (1-phenylcyclohexyl)ethylamine, N-(1-phenylcyclohexyl)ethylamine, cyclohexamine, PCE
| | | (33) Pyrrolidine analog of phencyclidine | 7458
| | Some trade or other names: 1-(1-phenylcyclohexyl)-pyrrolidine, PCPy, PHP
| | | (34) Thiophene analog of phencyclidine | 7470
| | Some trade or other names: 1-[1-(2-thienyl)-cyclohexyl]-piperidine, 2-thienylanalog of phencyclidine, TPCP, TCP
| | | (35) 1-[1-(2-thienyl)cyclohexyl]pyrrolidine | 7473
| | Some other names: TCPy
| | | (36) 4-methylmethcathinone (Mephedrone) | 1248
| | (37) 3,4-methylenedioxypyrovalerone (MDPV) | 7535
| | (38) 2-(2,5-Dimethoxy-4-ethylphenyl)ethanamine (2C-E) | 7509
| | (39) 2-(2,5-Dimethoxy-4-methylphenyl)ethanamine (2C-D) | 7508
| | (40) 2-(4-Chloro-2,5-dimethoxyphenyl)ethanamine (2C-C) | 7519
| | (41) 2-(4-Iodo-2,5-dimethoxyphenyl)ethanamine (2C-I) | 7518
| | (42) 2-[4-(Ethylthio)-2,5-dimethoxyphenyl]ethanamine (2C-T-2) | 7385
| | (43) 2-[4-(Isopropylthio)-2,5-dimethoxyphenyl]ethanamine (2C-T-4) | 7532
| | (44) 2-(2,5-Dimethoxyphenyl)ethanamine (2C-H) | 7517
| | (45) 2-(2,5-Dimethoxy-4-nitro-phenyl)ethanamine (2C-N) | 7521
| | (46) 2-(2,5-Dimethoxy-4-(n)-propylphenyl)ethanamine (2C-P) | 7524
| | (47) 3,4-Methylenedioxy-N-methylcathinone (Methylone) | 7540
| | (48) (1-pentyl-1H-indol-3-yl)(2,2,3,3-tetramethylcyclopropyl)methanone (UR-144) | (7144)
| | (49) [1-(5-fluoro-pentyl)-1H-indol-3-yl](2,2,3,3-tetramethylcyclopropyl)methanone (5-fluoro-UR-144, XLR11) | (7011)
| | (50) N-(1-adamantyl)-1-pentyl-1H-indazole-3-carboxamide (APINACA, AKB48) | (7048)
| | (51) quinolin-8-yl 1-pentyl-1H-indole-3-carboxylate (PB-22; QUPIC) | (7222)
| | (52) quinolin-8-yl 1-(5-fluoropentyl)-1H-indole-3-carboxylate (5-fluoro-PB-22; 5F-PB-22) | (7225)
| | (53) N-(1-amino-3-methyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl)-1-(4-fluorobenzyl)-1H-indazole-3-carboxamide (AB-FUBINACA) | (7012)
| | (54) N-(1-amino-3,3-dimethyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl)-1-pentyl-1H-indazole-3-carboxamide (ADB-PINACA) | (7035)
| | (55) 2-(4-iodo-2,5-dimethoxyphenyl)-N-(2-methoxybenzyl)ethanamine (25I-NBOMe, 2C-I-NBOMe) | (7538)
| | (56) 2-(4-chloro-2,5-dimethoxyphenyl)-N-(2-methoxybenzyl)ethanamine (25C-NBOMe, 2C-C-NBOMe) | (7537)
| | (57) 2-(4-bromo-2,5-dimethoxyphenyl)-N-(2-methoxybenzyl)ethanamine (25B-NBOMe, 2C-B-NBOMe) | (7536)
| | (58) Marihuana Extract | 7350
| | Meaning an extract containing one or more cannabinoids that has been derived from any plant of the genus Cannabis, containing greater than 0.3% delta-9-tetrahydrocannabinol on a dry weight basis, other than the separated resin (whether crude or purified) obtained from the plant.
| | | (59) 4-methyl-N-ethylcathinone (4-MEC) | (1249)
| | (60) 4-methyl-alpha-pyrrolidinopropiophenone (4-MePPP) | (7498)
| | (61) alpha-pyrrolidinopentiophenone ([alpha]-PVP) | (7545)
| | (62) 1-(1,3-benzodioxol-5-yl)-2-(methylamino)butan-1-one (butylone, bk-MBDB) | (7541)
| | (63) 2-(methylamino)-1-phenylpentan-1-one (pentedrone) | (1246)
| | (64) 1-(1,3-benzodioxol-5-yl)-2-(methylamino)pentan-1-one (pentylone, bk-MBDP) | (7542)
| | (65) 4-fluoro-N-methylcathinone (4-FMC; flephedrone) | (1238)
| | (66) 3-fluoro-N-methylcathinone (3-FMC) | (1233)
| | (67) 1-(naphthalen-2-yl)-2-(pyrrolidin-1-yl)pentan-1-one (naphyrone) | (1258)
| | (68) alpha-pyrrolidinobutiophenone ([alpha]-PBP) | (7546)
| | (69) N-(1-amino-3-methyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl)-1-(cyclohexylmethyl)-1H-indazole-3-carboxamide (AB-CHMINACA) | (7031)
| | (70) N-(1-amino-3-methyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl)-1-pentyl-1H-indazole-3-carboxamide (AB-PINACA) | (7023)
| | (71) [1-(5-fluoropentyl)-1H-indazol-3-yl](naphthalen-1-yl)methanone (THJ-2201) | (7024)
| | (72) N-(1-amino-3,3-dimethyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl)-1-(cyclohexylmethyl)-1H-indazole-3-carboxamide (MAB-CHMINACA; ADB-CHMINACA) | (7032)
| | (73) methyl 2-(1-(5-fluoropentyl)-1H-indazole-3-carboxamido)-3,3-dimethylbutanoate (Other names: 5F-ADB; 5F-MDMB-PINACA) | 7034
| | (74) methyl 2-(1-(5-fluoropentyl)-1H-indazole-3-carboxamido)-3-methylbutanoate (Other names: 5F-AMB) | 7033
| | (75) N-(adamantan-1-yl)-1-(5-fluoropentyl)-1H-indazole-3-carboxamide (Other names: 5F-APINACA, 5F-AKB48) | 7049
| | (76) N-(1-amino-3,3-dimethyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl)-1-(4-fluorobenzyl)-1H-indazole-3-carboxamide (Other names: ADB-FUBINACA) | 7010
| | (77) methyl 2-(1-(cyclohexylmethyl)-1H-indole-3-carboxamido)-3,3-dimethylbutanoate (Other names: MDMB-CHMICA, MMB-CHMINACA) | 7042
| | (78) methyl 2-(1-(4-fluorobenzyl)-1H-indazole-3-carboxamido)-3,3-dimethylbutanoate (Other names: MDMB-FUBINACA) | 7020
| | (79) methyl 2-(1-(4-fluorobenzyl)-1H-indazole-3-carboxamido)-3-methylbutanoate, (FUB-AMB, MMB-FUBINACA, AMB-FUBINACA) | (7021)
| | (80) 1-(1,3-benzodioxol-5-yl)-2-(ethylamino)propan-1-one (ethylone) | 7547
| | (81) Naphthalen-1-yl 1-(5-fluoropentyl)-1H-indole-3-carboxylate (Other names: NM2201; CBL2201) | 7221
| | (82) N-(1-amino-3-methyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl)-1-(5-fluoropentyl)-1H-indazole-3-carboxamide (Other name: 5F-AB-PINACA) | 7025
| | (83) 1-(4-cyanobutyl)-N-(2-phenylpropan-2-yl)-1H-indazole-3-carboxamide (Other names: 4-CN-CUMYL-BUTINACA; 4-cyano-CUMYL-BUTINACA; 4-CN-CUMYL BINACA; CUMYL-4CN-BINACA; SGT-78) | 7089
| | (84) methyl 2-(1-(cyclohexylmethyl)-1H-indole-3-carboxamido)-3-methylbutanoate (Other names: MMB-CHMICA; AMB-CHMICA) | 7044
| | (85) 1-(5-fluoropentyl)-N-(2-phenylpropan-2-yl)-1H-pyrrolo[2,3-b]pyridine-3-carboxamide (Other name: 5F-CUMYL-P7AICA) | 7085
| | (86) N-ethylpentylone (Other names: ephylone, 1-(1,3-benzodioxol-5-yl)-2-(ethylamino)pentan-1-one) | 7543
| | (87) methyl 2-(1-(4-fluorobutyl)-1H-indazole-3-carboxamido)-3,3-dimethylbutanoate (4F-MDMB-BINACA, 4F-MDMB-BUTINACA) | 7043
| | (88) 1-(4-methoxyphenyl)-N-methylpropan-2-amine (other names: para-methoxymethamphetamine, PMMA) | (1245)
| | (89) ethyl 2-(1-(5-fluoropentyl)-1H-indazole-3-carboxamido)-3,3-dimethylbutanoate (other name: 5F-EDMB-PINACA) | 7036
| | (90) methyl 2-(1-(5-fluoropentyl)-1H-indole-3-carboxamido)-3,3-dimethylbutanoate (other names: 5F-MDMB-PICA; 5F-MDMB-2201) | 7041
| | (91) N-(adamantan-1-yl)-1-(4-fluorobenzyl)-1H-indazole-3-carboxamide (other names: FUB-AKB48; FUB-APINACA; AKB48 N-(4-FLUOROBENZYL)) | 7047
| | (92) 1-(5-fluoropentyl)-N-(2-phenylpropan-2-yl)-1H-indazole-3-carboxamide (other names: 5F-CUMYL-PINACA; SGT-25) | 7083
| | (93) (1-(4-fluorobenzyl)-1H-indol-3-yl)(2,2,3,3-tetramethylcyclopropyl)methanone (other name: FUB-144) | 7014
| | (94) N-Ethylhexedrone (Other names: [alpha]-ethylaminohexanophenone; 2-(ethylamino)-1-phenylhexan-1-one) | 7246
| | (95) alpha-Pyrrolidinohexanophenone (Other names: [alpha]-PHP; [alpha]-pyrrolidinohexanophenone; 1-phenyl-2-(pyrrolidin-1-yl)hexan-1-one) | 7544
| | (96) 4-Methyl-alpha-ethylaminopentiophenone (Other names: 4-MEAP; 2-(ethylamino)-1-(4-methylphenyl)pentan-1-one) | 7245
| | (97) 4'-Methyl-alpha-pyrrolidinohexiophenone (Other names: MPHP; 4'-methyl-alpha-pyrrolidinohexanophenone; 1-(4-methylphenyl)-2-(pyrrolidin-1-yl)hexan-1-one) | 7446
| | (98) alpha-Pyrrolidinoheptaphenone (Other names: PV8; 1-phenyl-2-(pyrrolidin-1-yl)heptan-1-one) | 7548
| | (99) 4'-Chloro-alpha-pyrrolidinovalerophenone (Other names: 4-chloro-[alpha]-PVP; 4'-chloro-[alpha]-pyrrolidinopentiophenone; 1-(4-chlorophenyl)-2-(pyrrolidin-1-yl)pentan-1-one) | 7443
| | (100) 2-(ethylamino)-2-(3-methoxyphenyl)cyclohexan-1-one (methoxetamine, MXE) | 7286
| | (101) 1-(1,3-benzodioxol-5-yl)-2-(ethylamino)butan-1-one (other names: eutylone; bk-EBDB) | 7549
| | (102) N-(1-amino-3,3-dimethyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl)-1-butyl-1H-indazole-3-carboxamide (other name: ADB-BUTINACA) | 7027
| | (103) 4-methyl-1-phenyl-2-(pyrrolidin-1-yl)pentan-1-one (other names: [alpha]-PiHP; alpha-PiHP) | 7551
| | (104) 2-(methylamino)-1-(3-methylphenyl)propan-1-one (other names: 3-MMC; 3-methylmethcathinone) | 1259
|
(e) Depressants. Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or preparation which contains any quantity of the following substances having a depressant effect on the central nervous system, including its salts, isomers, and salts of isomers whenever the existence of such salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation:
| (1) gamma-hydroxybutyric acid (some other names include GHB; gamma-hydroxybutyrate; 4-hydroxybutyrate; 4-hydroxybutanoic acid; sodium oxybate; sodium oxybutyrate) | 2010
| | (2) Mecloqualone | 2572
| | (3) Methaqualone | 2565 |
(f) Stimulants. Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or preparation which contains any quantity of the following substances having a stimulant effect on the central nervous system, including its salts, isomers, and salts of isomers:
| (1) Amineptine (7-[(10,11-dihydro-5H-dibenzo[a,d]cyclohepten-5-yl)amino]heptanoic acid) | 1219
| | (2) Aminorex (Some other names: aminoxaphen; 2-amino-5-phenyl-2-oxazoline; or 4,5-dihydro-5-phenly-2-oxazolamine) | 1585
| | (3) N-Benzylpiperazine (some other names: BZP, 1-benzylpiperazine) | 7493
| | (4) Cathinone | 1235
| | Some trade or other names: 2-amino-1-phenyl-1-propanone, alpha-aminopropiophenone, 2-aminopropiophenone, and norephedrone
| | | (5) 4,4'-Dimethylaminorex (4,4'-DMAR; 4,5-dihydro-4-methyl-5-(4-methylphenyl)-2-oxazolamine; 4-methyl-5-(4-methylphenyl)-4,5-dihydro-1,3-oxazol-2-amine) | 1595
| | (6) Fenethylline | 1503
| | (7) Mesocarb (N-phenyl-N '-(3-(1-phenylpropan-2-yl)-1,2,3-oxadiazol-3-ium-5-yl)carbamimidate) | 1227
| | (8) Methcathinone (Some other names: 2-(methylamino)-propiophenone; alpha-(methylamino)propiophenone; 2-(methylamino)-1-phenylpropan-1-one; alpha-N-methylaminopropiophenone; monomethylpropion; ephedrone; N-methylcathinone; methylcathinone; AL-464; AL-422; AL-463 and UR1432), its salts, optical isomers and salts of optical isomers | 1237
| | (9) Methiopropamine (N-methyl-1-(thiophen-2-yl)propan-2-amine) | 1478
| | (10) (+/-)cis-4-methylaminorex ((+/-)cis-4,5-dihydro-4-methyl-5-phenyl-2-oxazolamine) | 1590
| | (11) N-ethylamphetamine | 1475
| | (12) N,N-dimethylamphetamine (also known as N,N-alpha-trimethyl-benzeneethanamine; N,N-alpha-trimethylphenethylamine) | 1480 |
(g) Cannabimimetic agents. Unless specifically exempted or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or preparation which contains any quantity of the following substances, or which contains their salts, isomers, and salts of isomers whenever the existence of such salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation:
| (1) 5-(1,1-dimethylheptyl)-2-[(1R,3S)-3-hydroxycyclohexyl]-phenol (CP-47,497) | 7297
| | (2) 5-(1,1-dimethyloctyl)-2-[(1R,3S)-3-hydroxycyclohexyl]-phenol (cannabicyclohexanol or CP-47,497 C8-homolog) | 7298
| | (3) 1-pentyl-3-(1-naphthoyl)indole (JWH-018 and AM678) | 7118
| | (4) 1-butyl-3-(1-naphthoyl)indole (JWH-073) | 7173
| | (5) 1-hexyl-3-(1-naphthoyl)indole (JWH-019) | 7019
| | (6) 1-[2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl]-3-(1-naphthoyl)indole (JWH-200) | 7200
| | (7) 1-pentyl-3-(2-methoxyphenylacetyl)indole (JWH-250) | 6250
| | (8) 1-pentyl-3-[1-(4-methoxynaphthoyl)]indole (JWH-081) | 7081
| | (9) 1-pentyl-3-(4-methyl-1-naphthoyl)indole (JWH-122) | 7122
| | (10) 1-pentyl-3-(4-chloro-1-naphthoyl)indole (JWH-398) | 7398
| | (11) 1-(5-fluoropentyl)-3-(1-naphthoyl)indole (AM2201) | 7201
| | (12) 1-(5-fluoropentyl)-3-(2-iodobenzoyl)indole (AM694) | 7694
| | (13) 1-pentyl-3-[(4-methoxy)-benzoyl]indole (SR-19 and RCS-4) | 7104
| | (14) 1-cyclohexylethyl-3-(2-methoxyphenylacetyl)indole 7008 (SR-18 and RCS-8) | 7008
| | (15) 1-pentyl-3-(2-chlorophenylacetyl)indole (JWH-203) | 7203 |
(h) Temporary listing of substances subject to emergency scheduling. Any material, compound, mixture or preparation which contains any quantity of the following substances:
| (1)-(29) [Reserved]
| | | (30) Fentanyl-related substances, their isomers, esters, ethers, salts and salts of isomers, esters and ethers | 9850 |
(i) Fentanyl-related substance means any substance not otherwise listed under another Administration Controlled Substance Code Number, and for which no exemption or approval is in effect under section 505 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act [21 U.S.C. 355], that is structurally related to fentanyl by one or more of the following modifications:
(A) Replacement of the phenyl portion of the phenethyl group by any monocycle, whether or not further substituted in or on the monocycle;
(B) Substitution in or on the phenethyl group with alkyl, alkenyl, alkoxyl, hydroxyl, halo, haloalkyl, amino or nitro groups;
(C) Substitution in or on the piperidine ring with alkyl, alkenyl, alkoxyl, ester, ether, hydroxyl, halo, haloalkyl, amino or nitro groups;
(D) Replacement of the aniline ring with any aromatic monocycle whether or not further substituted in or on the aromatic monocycle; and/or
(E) Replacement of the N -propionyl group by another acyl group.
(ii) This definition includes, but is not limited to, the following substances: (A)-(B) [Reserved]
| (31)-(49) [Reserved]
| | | (50) 2-(2-(4-butoxybenzyl)-5-nitro-1H-benzimidazol-1-yl)-N,N-diethylethan-1-amine, its isomers, esters, ethers, salts, and salts of isomers, esters and ethers (Other name: Butonitazene) | 9751
| | (51) 2-(2-(4-ethoxybenzyl)-1H-benzimidazol-1-yl)-N,N-diethylethan-1-amine, its isomers, esters, ethers, salts, and salts of isomers, esters and ethers (Other names: Etodesnitazene; etazene) | 9765
| | (52) N,N-diethyl-2-(2-(4-fluorobenzyl)-5-nitro-1H-benzimidazol-1-yl)ethan-1-amine, its isomers, esters, ethers, salts, and salts of isomers, esters and ethers (Other name: Flunitazene) | 9756
| | (53) N,N-diethyl-2-(2-(4-methoxybenzyl)-1H-benzimidazol-1-yl)ethan-1-amine, its isomers, esters, ethers, salts, and salts of isomers, esters and ethers (Other name: Metodesnitazene) | 9764
| | (54) [Reserved]
| | | (55) 2-(4-ethoxybenzyl)-5-nitro-1-(2-(pyrrolidin-1-yl)ethyl)-1H-benzimidazole, its isomers, esters, ethers, salts, and salts of isomers, esters and ethers (Other names: N-pyrrolidino etonitazene; etonitazepyne) | 9758
| | (56) N,N-diethyl-2-(5-nitro-2-(4-propoxybenzyl)-1H-benzimidazol-1-yl)ethan-1-amine, its isomers, esters, ethers, salts, and salts of isomers, esters and ethers (Other name: Protonitazene) | 9759
| | (57) 4-(2-chlorophenyl)-2-ethyl-9-methyl-6H-thieno[3,2-f][1,2,4]triazolo[4,3-a][1,4]diazepine, its salts, isomers, and salts of isomers (Other name: etizolam) | 2780
| | (58) 8-chloro-6-(2-fluorophenyl)-1-methyl-4H-benzo[f][1,2,4]triazolo[4,3-a][1,4]diazepine, its salts, isomers, and salts of isomers (Other name: flualprazolam) | 2785
| | (59) 6-(2-chlorophenyl)-1-methyl-8-nitro-4H-benzo[f][1,2,4]triazolo[4,3-a][1,4]diazepine, its salts, isomers, and salts of isomers (Other name: clonazolam) | 2786
| | (60) 8-bromo-6-(2-fluorophenyl)-1-methyl-4H-benzo[f][1,2,4]triazolo[4,3-a][1,4]diazepine, its salts, isomers, and salts of isomers (Other name: flubromazolam) | 2788
| | (61) 7-chloro-5-(2-chlorophenyl)-1-methyl-1,3-dihydro-2H-benzo[e][1,4]diazepin-2-one, its salts, isomers, and salts of isomers (Other name: diclazepam) | 2789
| | (62) Methyl 3,3-dimethyl-2-(1-(pent-4-en-1-yl)-1H-indazole-3-carboxamido)butanoate, its optical and geometric isomers, salts and salts of isomers (Other name: MDMB-4en-PINACA) | 7090
| | (63) Methyl 2-<1-(4-fluorobutyl)indole-3-carbonyl]amino]-3,3-dimethyl-butanoate, its optical and geometric isomers, salts and salts of isomers (Other names: 4F-MDMB-BUTICA; 4F-MDMB-BICA) | 7091
| | (64) N-(1-Amino-3,3-dimethyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl)-1-(pent-4-en-1-yl)-1H-indazole-3-carboxamide, its optical and geometric isomers, salts and salts of isomers (Other name: ADB-4en-PINACA) | 7092
| | (65) 5-Pentyl-2-(2-phenylpropan-2-yl)pyrido[4,3-b]indol-1-one, its optical and geometric isomers, salts and salts of isomers (Other names: CUMYL-PEGACLONE; SGT-151) | 7093
| | (66) Ethyl 2-<1-(5-fluoropentyl)indole-3-carbonyl]amino]-3,3-dimethyl-butanoate, its optical and geometric isomers, salts and salts of isomers (Other names: 5F-EDMB-PICA; 5F-EDMB-2201) | 7094
| | (67) Methyl 2-(1-(4-fluorobenzyl)-1H-indole-3-carboxamido)-3-methyl butanoate, its optical and geometric isomers, salts and salts of isomers (Other name: MMB-FUBICA) | 7095
|
2.At 88 FR 13694, Mar. 6, 2022, § 1308.11 was amended; however, the amendment could not be incorporated due to inaccurate amendatory instruction.
1.At 83 FR 5191, Feb. 6, 2018, § 1308.11 was amended by adding paragraph (h)(30), effective Feb. 6, 2018, through Feb. 6, 2020. Effective Feb. 6, 2020, Congress extended the effective period for paragraph (h)(30) until May 6, 2021, by Public Law 116-114. Effective May 4, 2021, Congress extended the effective period for paragraph (h)(30) until October 22, 2021, by Public Law 117-12. Effective Sept. 30, 2021, Congress extended the effective period for paragraph (h)(30) until Jan. 28, 2022, by Public Law 117-43. Effective Jan. 13, 2022, Congress extended the effective period for paragraph (h)(30) until Feb. 18, 2022, by Public Law 117-70. Effective Feb. 18, 2022, Congress extended the effective period for paragraph (h)(30) until Mar. 11, 2022, by Public Law 117-86. Effective Mar. 11, 2022, Congress extended the effective period for paragraph (h)(30) until Mar. 15, 2022 by Public Law 117-95. Effective Mar. 15, 2022, Congress extended the effective period for paragraph (h)(30) until Dec. 31, 2022 by Public Law No. 117-103. Effective Dec. 29, 2022, Congress extended the effective period for paragraph (h)(30) until Dec. 31, 2024 by Public Law No. 117-328.
2. At 87 FR 21561, Apr. 12, 2022, § 1308.11 was amended by adding paragraphs (h)(50) through (h)(56), effective Apr. 12, 2022 through Apr. 12, 2024.
3. At 88 FR 48118, July 26, 2023, § 1308.11 was amended by adding paragraphs (h)(57) through (h)(61), effective July 26, 2023 through July 26, 2025.
4. At 88 FR 86045, Dec. 12, 2023, § 1308.11 was amended by adding pargaraphs (h)(62) through (h)(65), effective Dec. 12, 2023 through Dec. 12, 2025.
[39 FR 22141, June 20, 1974] Editorial Notes: For Federal Register citations affecting § 1308.11, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at www.govinfo.gov. Effective Date Notes: (a) Schedule II shall consist of the drugs and other substances, by whatever official name, common or usual name, chemical name, or brand name designated, listed in this section. Each drug or substance has been assigned the Controlled Substances Code Number set forth opposite it.
(b) Substances, vegetable origin or chemical synthesis. Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any of the following substances whether produced directly or indirectly by extraction from substances of vegetable origin, or independently by means of chemical synthesis, or by a combination of extraction and chemical synthesis:
(1) Opium and opiate, and any salt, compound, derivative, or preparation of opium or opiate excluding apomorphine, thebaine-derived butorphanol, dextrorphan, nalbuphine, naldemedine, nalmefene, naloxegol, naloxone, 6[beta]-naltrexol, naltrexone, and samidorphan, and their respective salts, but including the following:
| (i) Codeine | 9050
| | (ii) Dihydroetorphine | 9334
| | (iii) Ethylmorphine | 9190
| | (iv) Etorphine hydrochloride | 9059
| | (v) Granulated opium | 9640
| | (vi) Hydrocodone | 9193
| | (vii) Hydromorphone | 9150
| | (viii) Metopon | 9260
| | (ix) Morphine | 9300
| | (x) Noroxymorphone | 9668
| | (xi) Opium extracts | 9610
| | (xii) Opium fluid | 9620
| | (xiii) Oripavine | 9330
| | (xiv) Oxycodone | 9143
| | (xv) Oxymorphone | 9652
| | (xvi) Powdered opium | 9639
| | (xvii) Raw opium | 9600
| | (xviii) Thebaine | 9333
| | (xix) Tincture of opium | 9630 |
(2) Any salt, compound, derivative, or preparation thereof which is chemically equivalent or identical with any of the substances referred to in paragraph (b) (1) of this section, except that these substances shall not include the isoquinoline alkaloids of opium.
(3) Opium poppy and poppy straw.
(4) Coca leaves (9040) and any salt, compound, derivative or preparation of coca leaves (including cocaine (9041) and ecgonine (9180) and their salts, isomers, derivatives and salts of isomers and derivatives), and any salt, compound, derivative, or preparation thereof which is chemically equivalent or identical with any of these substances, except that the substances shall not include:
(i) Decocainized coca leaves or extraction of coca leaves, which extractions do not contain cocaine or ecgonine;
(ii) [
123I]ioflupane; or
(iii) [
18F]FP-CIT.
(5) Concentrate of poppy straw (the crude extract of poppy straw in either liquid, solid or powder form which contains the phenanthrene alkaloids of the opium poppy), 9670.
(c) Opiates. Unless specifically excepted or unless in another schedule any of the following opiates, including its isomers, esters, ethers, salts and salts of isomers, esters and ethers whenever the existence of such isomers, esters, ethers, and salts is possible within the specific chemical designation, dextrorphan and levopropoxyphene excepted:
| (1) Alfentanil | 9737
| | (2) Alphaprodine | 9010
| | (3) Anileridine | 9020
| | (4) Bezitramide | 9800
| | (5) Bulk dextropropoxyphene (non-dosage forms) | 9273
| | (6) Carfentanil | 9743
| | (7) Dihydrocodeine | 9120
| | (8) Diphenoxylate | 9170
| | (9) Fentanyl | 9801
| | (10) Isomethadone | 9226
| | (11) Levo-alphacetylmethadol | 9648
| | [Some other names: levo-alpha-acetylmethadol, levomethadyl acetate, LAAM]
| | | (12) Levomethorphan | 9210
| | (13) Levorphanol | 9220
| | (14) Metazocine | 9240
| | (15) Methadone | 9250
| | (16) Methadone-Intermediate, 4-cyano-2-dimethylamino-4,4-diphenyl butane | 9254
| | (17) Moramide-Intermediate, 2-methyl-3-morpholino-1, 1-diphenylpropane-carboxylic acid | 9802
| | (18) Oliceridine (N-[(3-methoxythiophen-2-yl)methyl]({2-[(9R)-9-(pyridin-2-yl)-6-oxaspiro[4.5]decan-9-yl]ethyl})amine) | 9245
| | (19) Pethidine (meperidine) | 9230
| | (20) Pethidine-Intermediate-A, 4-cyano-1-methyl-4-phenylpiperidine | 9232
| | (21) Pethidine-Intermediate-B, ethyl-4-phenylpiperidine-4-carboxylate | 9233
| | (22) Pethidine-Intermediate-C, 1-methyl-4-phenylpiperidine-4-carboxylic acid | 9234
| | (23) Phenazocine | 9715
| | (24) Piminodine | 9730
| | (25) Racemethorphan | 9732
| | (26) Racemorphan | 9733
| | (27) Remifentanil | 9739
| | (28) Sufentanil | 9740
| | (29) Tapentadol | 9780
| | (30) Thiafentanil | 9729 |
(d) Stimulants. Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or preparation which contains any quantity of the following substances having a stimulant effect on the central nervous system:
| (1) Amphetamine, its salts, optical isomers, and salts of its optical isomers | 1100
| | (2) Methamphetamine, its salts, isomers, and salts of its isomers | 1105
| | (3) Phenmetrazine and its salts | 1631
| | (4) Methylphenidate | 1724
| | (5) Lisdexamfetamine, its salts, isomers, and salts of its isomers | 1205. |
(e) Depressants. Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or preparation which contains any quantity of the following substances having a depressant effect on the central nervous system, including its salts, isomers, and salts of isomers whenever the existence of such salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation:
| (1) Amobarbital | 2125
| | (2) Glutethimide | 2550
| | (3) Pentobarbital | 2270
| | (4) Phencyclidine | 7471
| | (5) Secobarbital | 2315 |
(f) Hallucinogenic substances.
| (1) Nabilone | 7379
| | [Another name for nabilone: (+/-)-trans-3-(1,1-dimethylheptyl)-6,6a,7,8,10,10a-hexahydro-1-hydroxy-6,6-dimethyl-9H-dibenzo[b,d]pyran-9-one]
| | | (2) Dronabinol [(-)-delta-9-trans tetrahydrocannabinol] in an oral solution in a drug product approved for marketing by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration | (7365) |
(g) Immediate precursors. Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or preparation which contains any quantity of the following substances:
(1) Immediate precursor to amphetamine and methamphetamine:
| (i) Phenylacetone | 8501
| | Some trade or other names: phenyl-2-propanone; P2P; benzyl methyl ketone; methyl benzyl ketone; | |
(2) Immediate precursors to phencyclidine (PCP):
| (i) 1-phenylcyclohexylamine | 7460
| | (ii) 1-piperidinocyclohexanecarbonitrile (PCC) | 8603 |
(3) Immediate precursor to fentanyl:
| (i) 4-anilino-N-phenethylpiperidine (ANPP) | 8333
| | (ii) N-phenyl-N-(piperidin-4-yl)propionamide (norfentanyl) | 8366 |
[39 FR 22142, June 20, 1974] Editorial Note: For Federal Register citations affecting § 1308.12, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at www.govinfo.gov.
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Sec. 1308.13 Schedule III.
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(a) Schedule III shall consist of the drugs and other substances, by whatever official name, common or usual name, chemical name, or brand name designated, listed in this section. Each drug or substance has been assigned the DEA Controlled Substances Code Number set forth opposite it.
(b) Stimulants. Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or preparation which contains any quantity of the following substances having a stimulant effect on the central nervous system, including its salts, isomers (whether optical, positional, or geometric), and salts of such isomers whenever the existence of such salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation:
| (1) Those compounds, mixtures, or preparations in dosage unit form containing any stimulant substances listed in schedule II which compounds, mixtures, or preparations were listed on August 25, 1971, as excepted compounds under § 1308.32, and any other drug of the quantitative composition shown in that list for those drugs or which is the same except that it contains a lesser quantity of controlled substances | 1405
| | (2) Benzphetamine | 1228
| | (3) Chlorphentermine | 1645
| | (4) Clortermine | 1647
| | (5) Phendimetrazine | 1615 |
(c) Depressants. Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or preparation which contains any quantity of the following substances having a depressant effect on the central nervous system:
| (1) Any compound, mixture or preparation containing:
| | | (i) Amobarbital | 2126
| | (ii) Secobarbital | 2316
| | (iii) Pentobarbital | 2271
| | or any salt thereof and one or more other active medicinal ingredients which are not listed in any schedule.
| | | (2) Any suppository dosage form containing:
| | | (i) Amobarbital | 2126
| | (ii) Secobarbital | 2316
| | (iii) Pentobarbital | 2271
| | or any salt of any of these drugs and approved by the Food and Drug Administration for marketing only as a suppository.
| | | (3) Any substance which contains any quantity of a derivative of barbituric acid or any salt thereof | 2100
| | (4) Chlorhexadol | 2510
| | (5) Embutramide | 2020
| | (6) Any drug product containing gamma hydroxybutyric acid, including its salts, isomers, and salts of isomers, for which an application is approved under section 505 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act | 2012
| | (7) Ketamine, its salts, isomers, and salts of isomers | 7285
| | [Some other names for ketamine: (+/-)-2-(2-chlorophenyl)-2-(methylamino)-cyclohexanone]
| | | (8) Lysergic acid | 7300
| | (9) Lysergic acid amide | 7310
| | (10) Methyprylon | 2575
| | (11) Perampanel, and its salts, isomers, and salts of isomers | 2261
| | (12) Sulfondiethylmethane | 2600
| | (13) Sulfonethylmethane | 2605
| | (14) Sulfonmethane | 2610
| | (15) Tiletamine and zolazepam or any salt thereof | 7295
| | Some trade or other names for a tiletamine-zolazepam combination product:
| | | Telazol
| | | Some trade or other names for tiletamine:
| | | 2-(ethylamino)-2-(2-thienyl)-cyclohexanone
| | | Some trade or other names for zolazepam:
| | | 4-(2-fluorophenyl)-6,8-dihydro-1,3,8-trimethylpyrazolo-[3,4-e] [1,4]-diazepin-7(1H)-one, flupyrazapon | |
(d) Nalorphine 9400.
(e) Narcotic drugs. Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule:
| (1) Any material, compound, mixture, or preparation containing any of the following narcotic drugs, or their salts calculated as the free anhydrous base or alkaloid, in limited quantities as set forth below:
| | | (i) Not more than 1.8 grams of codeine per 100 milliliters or not more than 90 milligrams per dosage unit, with an equal or greater quantity of an isoquinoline alkaloid of opium | 9803
| | (ii) Not more than 1.8 grams of codeine per 100 milliliters or not more than 90 milligrams per dosage unit, with one or more active, nonnarcotic ingredients in recognized therapeutic amounts | 9804
| | (iii) Not more than 1.8 grams of dihydrocodeine per 100 milliliters or not more than 90 milligrams per dosage unit, with one or more active nonnarcotic ingredients in recognized therapeutic amounts | 9807
| | (iv) Not more than 300 milligrams of ethylmorphine per 100 milliliters or not more than 15 milligrams per dosage unit, with one or more active, nonnarcotic ingredients in recognized therapeutic amounts | 9808
| | (v) Not more than 500 milligrams of opium per 100 milliliters or per 100 grams or not more than 25 milligrams per dosage unit, with one or more active, nonnarcotic ingredients in recognized therapeutic amounts | 9809
| | (vi) Not more than 50 milligrams of morphine per 100 milliliters or per 100 grams, with one or more active, nonnarcotic ingredients in recognized therapeutic amounts | 9810
| | (2) Any material, compound, mixture, or preparation containing any of the following narcotic drugs or their salts, as set forth below:
| | | (i) Buprenorphine | 9064
| | (ii) [Reserved] | |
(f) Anabolic steroids. Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any substance meeting the definition of anabolic steroid as set forth in § 1300.01 of this chapter, including any material, compound, mixture or preparation containing any quantity of the following substances, including its salts, esters and ethers (4000):
(1) 5[alpha]-androstan-3,17-dione;
(2) 5[alpha]-androstan-3,6,17-trione;
(3) 1-androstenediol (3[beta],17[beta]-dihydroxy-5[alpha]-androst-1-ene);
(4) 1-androstenediol (3[alpha],17[beta]-dihydroxy-5[alpha]-androst-1-ene);
(5) 4-androstenediol (3[beta],17[beta]-dihydroxy-androst-4-ene);
(6) 5-androstenediol (3[beta],17[beta]-dihydroxy-androst-5-ene);
(7) 1-androstenedione (5[alpha]-androst-1-en-3,17-dione);
(8) 4-androstenedione (androst-4-en-3,17-dione);
(9) 5-androstenedione (androst-5-en-3,17-dione);
(10) bolasterone (7[alpha],17[alpha]-dimethyl-17[beta]-hydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one);
(11) boldenone (17[beta]-hydroxyandrost-1,4-diene-3-one);
(12) boldione (androsta-1,4-diene-3,17-dione);
(13) 6-bromo-androsta-1,4-diene-3,17-dione;
(14) 6-bromo-androstan-3,17-dione;
(15) calusterone (7[beta],17[alpha]-dimethyl-17[beta]-hydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one);
(16) 4-chloro-17[alpha]-methyl-androsta-1,4-diene-3,17[beta]-diol;
(17) 4-chloro-17[alpha]-methyl-androst-4-ene-3[beta],17[beta]-diol;
(18) 4-chloro-17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-hydroxy-androst-4-en-3-one;
(19) 4-chloro-17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-hydroxy-androst-4-ene-3,11-dione;
(20) clostebol (4-chloro-17[beta]-hydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one);
(21) dehydrochloromethyltestosterone (4-chloro-17[beta]-hydroxy-17[alpha]-methyl-androst-1,4-dien-3-one);
(22) desoxymethyltestosterone (17[alpha]-methyl-5[alpha]-androst-2-en-17[beta]-ol) (a.k.a. "madol");
(23) 4-dihydrotestosterone (17[beta]-hydroxy-androstan-3-one);
(24) [delta]1-dihydrotestosterone (a.k.a. "1-testosterone") (17[beta]-hydroxy-5[alpha]-androst-1-en-3-one);
(25) 3[beta],17[beta]-dihydroxy-5[alpha]-androstane;
(26) 3[alpha],17[beta]-dihydroxy-5[alpha]-androstane;
(27) 2[alpha],17[alpha]-dimethyl-17[beta]-hydroxy-5[beta]-androstan-3-one;
(28) drostanolone (17[beta]-hydroxy-2[alpha]-methyl-5[alpha]-androstan-3-one);
(29) 2[alpha],3[alpha]-epithio-17[alpha]-methyl-5[alpha]-androstan-17[beta]-ol;
(30) estra-4,9,11-triene-3,17-dione;
(31) 13[beta]-ethyl-17[beta]-hydroxygon-4-en-3-one;
(32) ethylestrenol (17[alpha]-ethyl-17[beta]-hydroxyestr-4-ene);
(33) fluoxymesterone (9-fluoro-17[alpha]-methyl-11[beta],17[beta]-dihydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one);
(34) formebolone (2-formyl-17[alpha]-methyl-11[alpha],17[beta]-dihydroxyandrost-1,4-dien-3-one);
(35) furazabol (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-hydroxyandrostano[2,3-c]furazan);
(36) [3,2-c]furazan-5[alpha]-androstan-17[beta]-ol;
(37) 18a-homo-3-hydroxy-estra-2,5(10)-dien-17-one;
(38) 4-hydroxy-19-nortestosterone (4,17[beta]-dihydroxy-estr-4-en-3-one);
(39) 4-hydroxy-androst-4-ene-3,17-dione;
(40) 17[beta]-hydroxy-androstano[2,3-d]isoxazole;
(41) 17[beta]-hydroxy-androstano[3,2-c]isoxazole;
(42) 3[beta]-hydroxy-estra-4,9,11-trien-17-one;
(43) 4-hydroxytestosterone (4,17[beta]-dihydroxy-androst-4-en-3-one);
(44) mestanolone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-hydroxy-5[alpha]-androstan-3-one);
(45) mesterolone (1[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-hydroxy-5[alpha]-androstan-3-one);
(46) methandienone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-hydroxyandrost-1,4-dien-3-one);
(47) methandriol (17[alpha]-methyl-3[beta],17[beta]-dihydroxyandrost-5-ene);
(48) methasterone (2[alpha],17[alpha]-dimethyl-5[alpha]-androstan-17[beta]-ol-3-one or 2[alpha],17[alpha]-dimethyl-17[beta]-hydroxy-5[alpha]-androstan-3-one);
(49) methenolone (1-methyl-17[beta]-hydroxy-5[alpha]-androst-1-en-3-one);
(50) 17[alpha]-methyl-androsta-1,4-diene-3,17[beta]-diol;
(51) 17[alpha]-methyl-5[alpha]-androstan-17[beta]-ol;
(52) 17[alpha]-methyl-androstan-3-hydroxyimine-17[beta]-ol;
(53) 6[alpha]-methyl-androst-4-ene-3,17-dione;
(54) 17[alpha]-methyl-androst-2-ene-3,17[beta]-diol;
(55) 17[alpha]-methyl-3[beta],17[beta]-dihydroxy-5[alpha]-androstane;
(56) 17[alpha]-methyl-3[alpha],17[beta]-dihydroxy-5[alpha]-androstane;
(57) 17[alpha]-methyl-3[beta],17[beta]-dihydroxyandrost-4-ene;
(58) 17[alpha]-methyl-4-hydroxynandrolone (17[alpha]-methyl-4-hydroxy-17[beta]-hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one);
(59) methyldienolone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-hydroxyestra-4,9(10)-dien-3-one);
(60) 17[alpha]-methyl-[delta]1-dihydrotestosterone (17[beta]-hydroxy-17[alpha]-methyl-5[alpha]-androst-1-en-3-one) (a.k.a. "17-[alpha]-methyl-1-testosterone");
(61) methyltestosterone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-hydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one);
(62) methyltrienolone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-hydroxyestra-4,9,11-trien-3-one);
(63) mibolerone (7[alpha],17[alpha]-dimethyl-17[beta]-hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one);
(64) nandrolone (17[beta]-hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one);
(65) 19-nor-4-androstenediol (3[beta],17[beta]-dihydroxyestr-4-ene);
(66) 19-nor-4-androstenediol (3[alpha],17[beta]-dihydroxyestr-4-ene);
(67) 19-nor-5-androstenediol (3[beta],17[beta]-dihydroxyestr-5-ene);
(68) 19-nor-5-androstenediol (3[alpha],17[beta]-dihydroxyestr-5-ene);
(69) 19-nor-4,9(10)-androstadienedione (estra-4,9(10)-diene-3,17-dione);
(70) 19-nor-4-androstenedione (estr-4-en-3,17-dione);
(71) 19-nor-5-androstenedione (estr-5-en-3,17-dione);
(72) norbolethone (13[beta],17[alpha]-diethyl-17[beta]-hydroxygon-4-en-3-one);
(73) norclostebol (4-chloro-17[beta]-hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one);
(74) norethandrolone (17[alpha]-ethyl-17[beta]-hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one);
(75) normethandrolone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one);
(76) oxandrolone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-hydroxy-2-oxa-5[alpha]-androstan-3-one);
(77) oxymesterone (17[alpha]-methyl-4,17[beta]-dihydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one);
(78) oxymetholone (17[alpha]-methyl-2-hydroxymethylene-17[beta]-hydroxy-5[alpha]-androstan-3-one);
(79) prostanozol (17[beta]-hydroxy-5[alpha]-androstano[3,2-c]pyrazole or [3,2-c]pyrazole-5[alpha]-androstan-17[beta]-ol);
(80) [3,2-c]pyrazole-androst-4-en-17[beta]-ol;
(81) stanozolol (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-hydroxy-5[alpha]-androst-2-eno[3,2-c]-pyrazole);
(82) stenbolone (17[beta]-hydroxy-2-methyl-5[alpha]-androst-1-en-3-one);
(83) testolactone (13-hydroxy-3-oxo-13,17-secoandrosta-1,4-dien-17-oic acid lactone);
(84) testosterone (17[beta]-hydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one);
(85) tetrahydrogestrinone (13[beta],17[alpha]-diethyl-17[beta]-hydroxygon-4,9,11-trien-3-one); and
(86) trenbolone (17[beta]-hydroxyestr-4,9,11-trien-3-one).
(g) Hallucinogenic substances. (1) Dronabinol (synthetic) in sesame oil and encapsulated in a soft gelatin capsule in a U.S. Food and Drug Administration approved product - 7369.
[Some other names for dronabinol: (6aR-trans )-6a,7,8,10a-tetrahydro-6,6,9-trimethyl-3-pentyl-6H -dibenzo [b,d ]pyran-1-ol] or (-)-delta-9-(trans )-tetrahydrocannabinol]
(2) [Reserved]
[39 FR 22142, June 20, 1974] Editorial Note: For Federal Register citations affecting § 1308.13, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at www.govinfo.gov.
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Sec. 1308.14 Schedule IV.
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(a) Schedule IV shall consist of the drugs and other substances, by whatever official name, common or usual name, chemical name, or brand name designated, listed in this section. Each drug or substance has been assigned the DEA Controlled Substances Code Number set forth opposite it.
(b) Narcotic drugs. Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or preparation containing any of the following narcotic drugs, or their salts calculated as the free anhydrous base or alkaloid, in limited quantities as set forth below:
| (1) Not more than 1 milligram of difenoxin and not less than 25 micrograms of atropine sulfate per dosage unit | 9167
| | (2) Dextropropoxyphene (alpha-(+)-4-dimethylamino-1,2-diphenyl-3-methyl-2-propionoxybutane) | 9278
| | (3) 2-[(dimethylamino)methyl]-1-(3-methoxyphenyl)cyclohexanol, its salts, optical and geometric isomers and salts of these isomers (including tramadol) | 9752 |
(c) Depressants. Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or preparation which contains any quantity of the following substances, including its salts, isomers, and salts of isomers whenever the existence of such salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation:
| (1) Alfaxalone | 2731
| | (2) Alprazolam | 2882
| | (3) Barbital | 2145
| | (4) Brexanolone | 2400
| | (5) Bromazepam | 2748
| | (6) Camazepam | 2749
| | (7) Carisoprodol | 8192
| | (8) Chloral betaine | 2460
| | (9) Chloral hydrate | 2465
| | (10) Chlordiazepoxide | 2744
| | (11) Clobazam | 2751
| | (12) Clonazepam | 2737
| | (13) Clorazepate | 2768
| | (14) Clotiazepam | 2752
| | (15) Cloxazolam | 2753
| | (16) Daridorexant | 2410
| | (17) Delorazepam | 2754
| | (18) Diazepam | 2765
| | (19) Dichloralphenazone | 2467
| | (20) Estazolam | 2756
| | (21) Ethchlorvynol | 2540
| | (22) Ethinamate | 2545
| | (23) Ethyl loflazepate | 2758
| | (24) Fludiazepam | 2759
| | (25) Flunitrazepam | 2763
| | (26) Flurazepam | 2767
| | (27) Fospropofol | 2138
| | (28) Halazepam | 2762
| | (29) Haloxazolam | 2771
| | (30) Ketazolam | 2772
| | (31) Lemborexant | 2245
| | (32) Loprazolam | 2773
| | (33) Lorazepam | 2885
| | (34) Lormetazepam | 2774
| | (35) Mebutamate | 2800
| | (36) Medazepam | 2836
| | (37) Meprobamate | 2820
| | (38) Methohexital | 2264
| | (39) Methylphenobarbital (mephobarbital) | 2250
| | (40) Midazolam | 2884
| | (41) Nimetazepam | 2837
| | (42) Nitrazepam | 2834
| | (43) Nordiazepam | 2838
| | (44) Oxazepam | 2835
| | (45) Oxazolam | 2839
| | (46) Paraldehyde | 2585
| | (47) Petrichloral | 2591
| | (48) Phenobarbital | 2285
| | (49) Pinazepam | 2883
| | (50) Prazepam | 2764
| | (51) Quazepam | 2881
| | (52) Remimazolam | 2846
| | (53) Suvorexant | 2223
| | (54) Temazepam | 2925
| | (55) Tetrazepam | 2886
| | (56) Triazolam | 2887
| | (57) Zaleplon | 2781
| | (58) Zolpidem | 2783
| | (59) Zopiclone | 2784
| | (60) Zuranolone | 2420 |
(d) [Reserved]
(e) Lorcaserin. Any material, compound, mixture, or preparation which contains any quantity of the following substances, including its salts, isomers, and salts of such isomers, whenever the existence of such salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible:
(f) Stimulants. Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or preparation which contains any quantity of the following substances having a stimulant effect on the central nervous system, including its salts, isomers and salts of isomers:
| (1) Cathine ((+)-norpseudoephedrine) | 1230
| | (2) Diethylpropion | 1610
| | (3) Fencamfamin | 1760
| | (4) Fenproporex | 1575
| | (5) Mazindol | 1605
| | (6) Mefenorex | 1580
| | (7)Modafinil | 1680
| | (8) Pemoline (including organometallic complexes and chelates thereof) | 1530
| | (9) Phentermine | 1640
| | (10) Pipradrol | 1750
| | (11) Serdexmethylphenidate | 1729
| | (12) Sibutramine | 1675
| | (13) Solriamfetol (2-amino-3-phenylpropyl carbamate; benzenepropanol, beta-amino-, carbamate (ester)) | 1650
| | (14) SPA ((-)-1-dimethylamino- 1,2-diphenylethane) | 1635 |
(g) Other substances. Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture or preparation which contains any quantity of the following substances, including its salts:
| (1) Pentazocine | 9709
| | (2) Butorphanol (including its optical isomers) | 9720
| | (3) Eluxadoline (5-<[(2S)-2-amino-3-[4-aminocarbonyl)-2,6-dimethylphenyl]-1-oxopropyl][(1S)-1-(4-phenyl-1H-imidazol-2-yl)ethyl]amino]methyl]-2-methoxybenzoic acid) (including its optical isomers) and its salts, isomers, and salts of isomers (9725). | |
[39 FR 22143, June 20, 1974] Editorial Note: For Federal Register citations affecting § 1308.14, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at www.govinfo.gov.
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(a) Schedule V shall consist of the drugs and other substances, by whatever official name, common or usual name, chemical name, or brand name designated, listed in this section.
(b) Narcotic drugs. Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or preparation containing any of the following narcotic drugs and their salts, as set forth below:
(1) [Reserved]
(2) [Reserved]
(c) Narcotic drugs containing non-narcotic active medicinal ingredients. Any compound, mixture, or preparation containing any of the following narcotic drugs, or their salts calculated as the free anhydrous base or alkaloid, in limited quantities as set forth below, which shall include one or more non-narcotic active medicinal ingredients in sufficient proportion to confer upon the compound, mixture, or preparation valuable medicinal qualities other than those possessed by narcotic drugs alone:
(1) Not more than 200 milligrams of codeine per 100 milliliters or per 100 grams.
(2) Not more than 100 milligrams of dihydrocodeine per 100 milliliters or per 100 grams.
(3) Not more than 100 milligrams of ethylmorphine per 100 milliliters or per 100 grams.
(4) Not more than 2.5 milligrams of diphenoxylate and not less than 25 micrograms of atropine sulfate per dosage unit.
(5) Not more than 100 milligrams of opium per 100 milliliters or per 100 grams.
(6) Not more than 0.5 milligram of difenoxin and not less than 25 micrograms of atropine sulfate per dosage unit.
(d) Stimulants. Unless specifically exempted or excluded or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or preparation which contains any quantity of the following substances having a stimulant effect on the central nervous system, including its salts, isomers and salts of isomers:
| (1) Pyrovalerone | 1485.
| | (2) [Reserved] | |
(e) Depressants. Unless specifically exempted or excluded or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or preparation which contains any quantity of the following substances having a depressant effect on the central nervous system, including its salts:
| (1) Brivaracetam ((2S)-2-[(4R)-2-oxo-4-propylpyrrolidin-1-yl] butanamide) (also referred to as BRV; UCB-34714; Briviact) (including its salts) | 2710
| | (2) Cenobamate ([(1R)-1-(2-chlorophenyl)-2-(tetrazol-2-yl)ethyl] carbamate; 2H-tetrazole-2-ethanol, alpha-(2-chlorophenyl)-, carbamate (ester), (alphaR)-; carbamic acid (R)-(+)-1-(2-chlorophenyl)-2-(2H-tetrazol-2-yl)ethyl ester) | 2720
| | (3) Ezogabine [N-[2-amino-4-(4-fluorobenzylamino)-phenyl]-carbamic acid ethyl ester] | 2779
| | (4) Ganaxolone (3[alpha]-hydroxy-3[beta]-methyl-5[alpha]-pregnan-20-one) | 2401
| | (5) Lacosamide [(R)-2-acetoamido-N-benzyl-3-methoxy-propionamide] | 2746
| | (6) Lasmiditan [2,4,6-trifluoro-N-(6-(1-methylpiperidine-4-carbonyl)pyridine-2-yl-benzamide] | 2790
| | (7) Pregabalin [(S)-3-(aminomethyl)-5-methylhexanoic acid] | 2782 |
[39 FR 22143, June 20, 1974, as amended at 43 FR 38383, Aug. 28, 1978; 44 FR 40888, July 13, 1979; 47 FR 49841, Nov. 3, 1982; 50 FR 8108, Feb. 28, 1985; 52 FR 5952, Feb. 27, 1987; 53 FR 10870, Apr. 4, 1988; 56 FR 61372, Dec. 3, 1991; 67 FR 62370, Oct. 7, 2002; 70 FR 43635, July 28, 2005; 74 FR 23790, May 21, 2009; 76 FR 77899, Dec. 15, 2011; 81 FR 29491, May 12, 2016; 83 FR 48953, Sept 28, 2018; 85 FR 5562, Jan. 31, 2020; 85 FR 13746, Mar. 10, 2020; 85 FR 51645, Aug. 21, 2020; 87 FR 32996, June 1, 2022]
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Excluded Nonnarcotic Substances
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Sec. 1308.21 Application for exclusion of a nonnarcotic substance.
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(a) Any person seeking to have any nonnarcotic drug that may, under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 301), be lawfully sold over the counter without a prescription, excluded from any schedule, pursuant to section 201(g)(1) of the Act (21 U.S.C. 811(g)(1)), may apply to the Drug and Chemical Evaluation Section, Diversion Control Division, Drug Enforcement Administration. See the Table of DEA Mailing Addresses in § 1321.01 of this chapter for the current mailing address.
(b) An application for an exclusion under this section shall contain the following information:
(1) The name and address of the applicant;
(2) The name of the substance for which exclusion is sought; and
(3) The complete quantitative composition of the substance.
(c) Within a reasonable period of time after the receipt of an application for an exclusion under this section, the Administrator shall notify the applicant of his acceptance or nonacceptance of his application, and if not accepted, the reason therefore. The Administrator need not accept an application for filing if any of the requirements prescribed in paragraph (b) of this section is lacking or is not set forth as to be readily understood. If the applicant desires, he may amend the application to meet the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section. If the application is accepted for filing, the Administrator shall issue and publish in the Federal Register his order on the application, which shall include a reference to the legal authority under which the order is issued and the findings of fact and conclusions of law upon which the order is based. This order shall specify the date on which it shall take effect. The Administrator shall permit any interested person to file written comments on or objections to the order within 60 days of the date of publication of his order in the Federal Register. If any such comments or objections raise significant issues regarding any finding of fact or conclusion of law upon which the order is based, the Administrator shall immediately suspend the effectiveness of the order until he may reconsider the application in light of the comments and objections filed. Thereafter, the Administrator shall reinstate, revoke, or amend his original order as he determines appropriate.
(d) The Administrator may at any time revoke any exclusion granted pursuant to section 201(g) of the Act (21 U.S.C. 811(g)) by following the procedures set forth in paragraph (c) of this section for handling an application for an exclusion which has been accepted for filing.
[38 FR 8254, Mar. 30, 1973, as amended at 70 FR 74657, Dec. 16, 2005; 75 FR 10678, Mar. 9, 2010; 81 FR 97021, Dec. 30, 2016]
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Sec. 1308.22 Excluded substances.
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The following nonnarcotic substances which may, under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 301), be lawfully sold over the counter without a prescription, are excluded from all schedules pursuant to section 201(g) (1) of the Act (21 U.S.C. 811(g) (1)):
Excluded Nonnarcotic Products
| Company
| Trade name
| NDC code
| Form
| Controlled substance
| (mg or mg/ml)
|
|---|
| Aphena Pharma Solutions - New York, LLC | Nasal Decongestant Inhaler/Vapor Inhaler | | IN | Levmetamfetamine (l-Desoxyephedrine) | 50.00
| | Bioline Laboratories | Theophed | 00719-1945 | TB | Phenobarbital | 8.00
| | Goldline Laboratories | Guiaphed Elixir | 00182-1377 | EL | Phenobarbital | 4.00
| | Goldline Laboratories | Tedrigen Tablets | 00182-0134 | TB | Phenobarbital | 8.00
| | Hawthorne Products Inc | Choate's Leg Freeze | | LQ | Chloral hydrate | 246.67
| | Parke-Davis & Co | Tedral | 00071-0230 | TB | Phenobarbital | 8.00
| | Parke-Davis & Co | Tedral Elixir | 00071-0242 | EX | Phenobarbital | 40.00
| | Parke-Davis & Co | Tedral S.A. | 00071-0231 | TB | Phenobarbital | 8.00
| | Parke-Davis & Co | Tedral Suspension | 00071-0237 | SU | Phenobarbital | 80.00
| | Parmed Pharmacy | Asma-Ese | 00349-2018 | TB | Phenobarbital | 8.10
| | Procter & Gamble Co., The | Vicks VapoInhaler | 37000-686-01 | IN | Levmetamfetamine (l-Desoxyephedrine) | 50.00
| | Rondex Labs | Azma-Aids | 00367-3153 | TB | Phenobarbital | 8.00
| | Smith Kline Consumer | Benzedrex | 49692-0928 | IN | Propylhexedrine | 250.00
| | Sterling Drug, Inc | Bronkolixir | 00057-1004 | EL | Phenobarbital | 0.80
| | Sterling Drug, Inc | Bronkotabs | 00057-1005 | TB | Phenobarbital | 8.00
| | White Hall Labs | Primatene (P-tablets) | 00573-2940 | TB | Phenobarbital | 8.00 |
[38 FR 8255, Mar. 30, 1973. Redesignated at 38 FR 26609, Sept. 24, 1973, and amended at 41 FR 16553, Apr. 20, 1976; 41 FR 53477, Dec. 7, 1976; 46 FR 51603, Oct. 21, 1981; 47 FR 45867, Oct. 14, 1982; 54 FR 2100, Jan. 19, 1989; 55 FR 12162, Mar. 30, 1990; 62 FR 13968, Mar. 24, 1997; 74 FR 44283, Aug. 28, 2009; 80 FR 65634, 65637, Oct. 27, 2015; 81 FR 6453, Feb. 8, 2016]
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Exempt Chemical Preparations
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Sec. 1308.23 Exemption of certain chemical preparations; application.
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(a) The Administrator may, by regulation, exempt from the application of all or any part of the Act any chemical preparation or mixture containing one or more controlled substances listed in any schedule, which preparation or mixture is intended for laboratory, industrial, educational, or special research purposes and not for general administration to a human being or other animal, if the preparation or mixture either:
(1) Contains no narcotic controlled substance and is packaged in such a form or concentration that the packaged quantity does not present any significant potential for abuse (the type of packaging and the history of abuse of the same or similar preparations may be considered in determining the potential for abuse of the preparation or mixture); or
(2) Contains either a narcotic or nonnarcotic controlled substance and one or more adulterating or denaturing agents in such a manner, combination, quantity, proportion, or concentration, that the preparation or mixture does not present any potential for abuse. If the preparation or mixture contains a narcotic controlled substance, the preparation or mixture must be formulated in such a manner that it incorporates methods of denaturing or other means so that the preparation or mixture is not liable to be abused or have ill effects, if abused, and so that the narcotic substance cannot in practice be removed.
(b) Any person seeking to have any preparation or mixture containing a controlled substance and one or more noncontrolled substances exempted from the application of all or any part of the Act, pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section, may apply to the Drug and Chemical Evaluation Section, Diversion Control Division, Drug Enforcement Administration. See the Table of DEA Mailing Addresses in § 1321.01 of this chapter for the current mailing address.
(c) An application for an exemption under this section shall contain the following information:
(1) The name, address, and registration number, if any, of the applicant;
(2) The name, address, and registration number, if any, of the manufacturer or importer of the preparation or mixture, if not the applicant;
(3) The exact trade name or other designation of the preparation or mixture;
(4) The complete qualitative and quantitative composition of the preparation or mixture (including all active and inactive ingredients and all controlled and noncontrolled substances);
(5) The form of the immediate container in which the preparation or mixture will be distributed with sufficient descriptive detail to identify the preparation or mixture (e.g., bottle, packet, vial, soft plastic pillow, agar gel plate, etc.);
(6) The dimensions or capacity of the immediate container of the preparation or mixture;
(7) The label and labeling, as defined in part 1300 of this chapter, of the immediate container and the commercial containers, if any, of the preparation or mixture;
(8) A brief statement of the facts which the applicant believes justify the granting of an exemption under this paragraph, including information on the use to which the preparation or mixture will be put;
(9) The date of the application; and
(10) Which of the information submitted on the application, if any, is deemed by the applicant to be a trade secret or otherwise confidential and entitled to protection under subsection 402(a)(8) of the Act (21 U.S.C. 842(a) (8)) or any other law restricting public disclosure of information.
(d) The Administrator may require the applicant to submit such documents or written statements of fact relevant to the application as he deems necessary to determine whether the application should be granted.
(e) Within a reasonable period of time after the receipt of an application for an exemption under this section, the Administrator shall notify the applicant of his acceptance or nonacceptance of his application, and if not accepted, the reason therefor. The Administrator need not accept an application for filing if any of the requirements prescribed in paragraph (c) or requested pursuant to paragraph (d) is lacking or is not set forth as to be readily understood. If the applicant desires, he may amend the application to meet the requirements of paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section. If the application is accepted for filing, the Administrator shall issue and publish in the Federal Register his order on the application, which shall include a reference to the legal authority under which the order is based. This order shall specify the date on which it shall take effect. The Administrator shall permit any interested person to file written comments on or objections to the order within 60 days of the date of publication of his order in the Federal Register. If any such comments or objections raise significant issues regarding any finding of fact or conclusion of law upon which the order is based, the Administrator shall immediately suspend the effectiveness of the order until he may reconsider the application in light of the comments and objections filed. Thereafter, the Administrator shall reinstate, revoke, or amend his original order as he determines appropriate.
(f) The Administrator may at any time revoke or modify any exemption granted pursuant to this section by following the procedures set forth in paragraph (e) of this section for handling an application for an exemption which has been accepted for filing. The Administrator may also modify or revoke the criteria by which exemptions are granted (and thereby modify or revoke all preparations and mixtures granted under the old criteria) and modify the scope of exemptions at any time.
[38 FR 8254, Mar. 30, 1973. Redesignated at 38 FR 26609, Sept. 24, 1973, and amended at 46 FR 28841, May 29, 1981; 62 FR 13968, Mar. 24, 1997; 75 FR 10678, Mar. 9, 2010; 81 FR 97021, Dec. 30, 2016]
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Sec. 1308.24 Exempt chemical preparations.
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(a) The chemical preparations and mixtures approved pursuant to § 1308.23 are exempt from application of sections 302, 303, 305, 306, 307, 308, 309, 1002, 1003 and 1004 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 822-823, 825-829, 952-954) and § 1301.74 of this chapter, to the extent described in paragraphs (b) to (h) of this section. Substances set forth in paragraph (j) of this section shall be exempt from the application of sections 305, 306, 307, 308, 309, 1002, 1003 and 1004 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 825-829, 952-954) and §§ 1301.71-1301.73 and 1301.74 (a), (b), (d), (e) and (f) of this chapter to the extent as hereinafter may be provided.
(b) Registration and security: Any person who manufactures an exempt chemical preparation or mixture must be registered under the Act and comply with all relevant security requirements regarding controlled substances being used in the manufacturing process until the preparation or mixture is in the form described in paragraph (i) of this section. Any other person who handles an exempt chemical preparation after it is in the form described in paragraph (i) of this section is not required to be registered under the Act to handle that preparation, and the preparation is not required to be stored in accordance with security requirements regarding controlled substances.
(c) Labeling: In lieu of the requirements set forth in part 1302 of this chapter, the label and the labeling of an exempt chemical preparation must be prominently marked with its full trade name or other description and the name of the manufacturer or supplier as set forth in paragraph (i) of this section, in such a way that the product can be readily identified as an exempt chemical preparation. The label and labeling must also include in a prominent manner the statement "For industrial use only" or "For chemical use only" or "For in vitro use only - not for human or animal use" or "Diagnostic reagent - for professional use only" or a comparable statement warning the person reading it that human or animal use is not intended. The symbol designating the schedule of the controlled substance is not required on either the label or the labeling of the exempt chemical preparation, nor is it necessary to list all ingredients of the preparation.
(d) Records and reports: Any person who manufactures an exempt chemical preparation or mixture must keep complete and accurate records and file all reports required under part 1304 of this chapter regarding all controlled substances being used in the manufacturing process until the preparation or mixture is in the form described in paragraph (i) of this section. In lieu of records and reports required under part 1304 of this chapter regarding exempt chemical preparations, the manufacturer need only record the name, address, and registration number, if any, of each person to whom the manufacturer distributes any exempt chemical preparation. Each importer or exporter of an exempt narcotic chemical preparation must submit a semiannual report of the total quantity of each substance imported or exported in each calendar half-year within 30 days of the close of the period to the Drug and Chemical Evaluation Section, Drug Enforcement Administration. See the Table of DEA Mailing Addresses in § 1321.01 of this chapter for the current mailing address. Any other person who handles an exempt chemical preparation after it is in the form described in paragraph (i) of this section is not required to maintain records or file reports.
(e) Quotas, order forms, prescriptions, import, export, and transshipment requirements: Once an exempt chemical preparation is in the form described in paragraph (i) of this section, the requirements regarding quotas, order forms, prescriptions, import permits and declarations, export permit and declarations, and transshipment and intransit permits and declarations do not apply. These requirements do apply, however, to any controlled substances used in manufacturing the exempt chemical preparation before it is in the form described in paragraph (i) of this section.
(f) Criminal penalties: No exemption granted pursuant to § 1308.23 affects the criminal liability for illegal manufacture, distribution, or possession of controlled substances contained in the exempt chemical preparation. Distribution, possession, and use of an exempt chemical preparation are lawful for registrants and nonregistrants only as long as such distribution, possession, or use is intended for laboratory, industrial, or educational purposes and not for immediate or subsequent administration to a human being or other animal.
(g) Bulk materials: For materials exempted in bulk quantities, the Administrator may prescribe requirements other than those set forth in paragraphs (b) through (e) of this section on a case-by-case basis.
(h) Changes in chemical preparations: Any change in the quantitative or qualitative composition of the preparation or mixture after the date of application, or change in the trade name or other designation of the preparation or mixture, set forth in paragraph (i) of this section, requires a new application for exemption.
(i) A listing of exempt chemical preparations may be obtained by submitting a written request to the Drug and Chemical Evaluation Section, Drug Enforcement Administration. See the Table of DEA Mailing Addresses in § 1321.01 of this chapter for the current mailing address.
(j) The following substances are designated as exempt chemical preparations for the purposes set forth in this section.
(1) Chloral. When packaged in a sealed, oxygen-free environment, under nitrogen pressure, safeguarded against exposure to the air.
(2) Emit
R Phenobarbital Enzyme Reagent B. In one liter quantities each with a 5 ml. retention sample for repackaging as an exempt chemical preparation only.
[38 FR 8255, Mar. 30, 1973] Editorial Note: For Federal Register citations affecting § 1308.24, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at www.govinfo.gov.
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Excluded Veterinary Anabolic Steroid Implant Products
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Sec. 1308.25 Exclusion of a veterinary anabolic steroid implant product; application.
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(a) Any person seeking to have any anabolic steroid product, which is expressly intended for administration through implants to cattle or other nonhuman species and which has been approved by the Secretary of Health and Human Services for such administration, identified as being excluded from any schedule, pursuant to section 102(41)(B)(i) of the Act (21 U.S.C. 802(41)(B)(i)), may apply to the Drug and Chemical Evaluation Section, Diversion Control Division, Drug Enforcement Administration . See the Table of DEA Mailing Addresses in § 1321.01 of this chapter for the current mailing address.
(b) An application for any exclusion under this section shall be submitted in triplicate and contain the following information:
(1) The name and address of the applicant;
(2) The name of the product;
(3) The chemical structural formula or description for any anabolic steroid contained in the product;
(4) A complete description of dosage and quantitative composition of the dosage form;.
(5) The conditions of use including whether or not Federal law restricts this product to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian;
(6) A description of the delivery system in which the dosage form will be distributed with sufficient detail to identify the product (e.g. 20 cartridge brown plastic belt);
(7) The label and labeling of the immediate container and the commercial containers, if any, of the product;.
(8) The name and address of the manufacturer of the dosage form if different from that of the applicant; and
(9) Evidence that the product has been approved by the Secretary of Health and Human Services for administration through implant to cattle or other nonhuman species.
(c) Within a reasonable period of time after the receipt of an application for an exclusion under this section, the Administrator shall notify the applicant of his acceptance or nonacceptance of the application, and if not accepted, the reason therefore. The Administrator need not accept an application for filing if any of the requirements prescribed in paragraph (b) of this section is lacking or is not set forth as to be readily understood. The applicant may amend the application to meet the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section. If the application is accepted for filing, the Administrator shall issue and have published in the Federal Register his order on the application, which shall include a reference to the legal authority under which the order is issued and the findings of fact and conclusions of law upon which the order is based. This order shall specify the date on which it will take effect. The Administrator shall permit any interested person to file written comments on or objections to the order within 60 days of the date of publication in the Federal Register. If any such comments or objections raise significant issues regarding any finding of fact or conclusion of law upon which the order is based, the Administrator shall immediately suspend the effectiveness of the order until he may reconsider the application in light of the comments and objections filed. Thereafter, the Administrator shall reinstate, revoke, or amend his original order as he determines appropriate.
(d) The Administrator may at any time revoke or modify any designation of excluded status granted pursuant to this section by following the procedures set forth in paragraph (c) of this section for handling an application for an exclusion which has been accepted for filing.
[56 FR 42936, Aug. 30, 1991, as amended at 75 FR 10679, Mar. 9, 2010; 81 FR 97021, Dec. 30, 2016]
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Sec. 1308.26 Excluded veterinary anabolic steroid implant products.
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(a) Products containing an anabolic steroid, that are expressly intended for administration through implants to cattle or other nonhuman species and which have been approved by the Secretary of Health and Human Services for such administration are excluded from all schedules pursuant to section 102(41)(B)(i) of the Act (21 U.S.C. 802(41)(B)(i)). A listing of the excluded products may be obtained by submitting a written request to the Drug and Chemical Evaluation Section, Drug Enforcement Administration. See the Table of DEA Mailing Addresses in § 1321.01 of this chapter for the current mailing address.
(b) In accordance with section 102(41)(B)(ii) of the Act (21 U.S.C. 802(41)(B)(ii)) if any person prescribes, dispenses, or distributes a product listed in paragraph (a) of this section for human use, such person shall be considered to have prescribed, dispensed, or distributed an anabolic steroid within the meaning of section 102(41)(A) of the Act (21 U.S.C. 802(41)(A)).
[56 FR 42936, Aug. 30, 1991, as amended at 57 FR 19534, May 7, 1992; 58 FR 15088, Mar. 19, 1993; 62 FR 13967, Mar. 24, 1997; 75 FR 10679, Mar. 9, 2010]
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Exempted Prescription Products
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Sec. 1308.31 Application for exemption of a nonnarcotic prescription product.
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(a) Any person seeking to have any compound, mixture, or preparation containing any nonnarcotic controlled substance listed in § 1308.12(e), or in § 1308.13(b) or (c), or in § 1308.14, or in § 1308.15, exempted from application of all or any part of the Act pursuant to section 201(g)(3)(A), of the Act (21 U.S.C. 811(g)(3)(A)) may apply to the Drug and Chemical Evaluation Section, Diversion Control Division, Drug Enforcement Administration. See the Table of DEA Mailing Addresses in § 1321.01 of this chapter for the current mailing address.
(b) An application for an exemption under this section shall contain the following information:
(1) The complete quantitative composition of the dosage form.
(2) Description of the unit dosage form together with complete labeling.
(3) A summary of the pharmacology of the product including animal investigations and clinical evaluations and studies, with emphasis on the psychic and/or physiological dependence liability (this must be done for each of the active ingredients separately and for the combination product).
(4) Details of synergisms and antagonisms among ingredients.
(5) Deterrent effects of the noncontrolled ingredients.
(6) Complete copies of all literature in support of claims.
(7) Reported instances of abuse.
(8) Reported and anticipated adverse effects.
(9) Number of dosage units produced for the past 2 years.
(c) Within a reasonable period of time after the receipt of an application for an exemption under this section, the Administrator shall notify the applicant of his acceptance or non-acceptance of the application, and if not accepted, the reason therefor. The Administrator need not accept an application for filing if any of the requirements prescribed in paragraph (b) of this section is lacking or is not set forth so as to be readily understood. If the applicant desires, he may amend the application to meet the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section. If accepted for filing, the Administrator shall publish in the Federal Register general notice of this proposed rulemaking in granting or denying the application. Such notice shall include a reference to the legal authority under which the rule is proposed, a statement of the proposed rule granting or denying an exemption, and, in the discretion of the Administrator, a summary of the subjects and issues involved. The Administrator shall permit any interested person to file written comments on or objections to the proposal and shall designate in the notice of proposed rule making the time during which such filings may be made. After consideration of the application and any comments on or objections to his proposed rulemaking, the Administrator shall issue and publish in the Federal Register his final order on the application, which shall set forth the findings of fact and conclusions of law upon which the order is based. This order shall specify the date on which it shall take effect, which shall not be less than 30 days from the date of publication in the Federal Register unless the Administrator finds that conditions of public health or safety necessitate an earlier effective date, in which event the Administrator shall specify in the order his findings as to such conditions.
(d) The Administrator may revoke any exemption granted pursuant to section 201(g)(3)(A) of the Act (21 U.S.C. 811(g)(3)(A)) by following the procedures set forth in paragraph (c) of this section for handling an application for an exemption which has been accepted for filing.
[38 FR 8254, Mar. 30, 1973. Redesignated at 38 FR 26609, Sept. 24, 1973, as amended at 44 FR 18968, Mar. 30, 1979; 52 FR 9803, Mar. 27, 1987; 75 FR 10679, Mar. 9, 2010; 81 FR 97021, Dec. 30, 2016]
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Sec. 1308.32 Exempted prescription products.
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The compounds, mixtures, or preparations that contain a nonnarcotic controlled substance listed in § 1308.12(e) or in § 1308.13(b) or (c) or in § 1308.14 or in § 1308.15 listed in the Table of Exempted Prescription Products have been exempted by the Administrator from the application of sections 302 through 305, 307 through 309, and 1002 through 1004 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 822-825, 827-829, and 952-954) and §§ 1301.13, 1301.22, and §§ 1301.71 through 1301.76 of this chapter for administrative purposes only. An exception to the above is that those products containing butalbital shall not be exempt from the requirement of 21 U.S.C. 952-954 concerning importation, exportation, transshipment and in-transit shipment of controlled substances. Any deviation from the quantitative composition of any of the listed drugs shall require a petition of exemption in order for the product to be exempted. A listing of the Exempted Prescription Products may be obtained by submitting a written request to the Drug and Chemical Evaluation Section, Drug Enforcement Administration. See the Table of DEA Mailing Addresses in § 1321.01 of this chapter for the current mailing address.
[75 FR 10679, Mar. 9, 2010]
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Exempt Anabolic Steroid Products
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Sec. 1308.33 Exemption of certain anabolic steroid products; application.
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(a) The Administrator, upon the recommendation of Secretary of Health and Human Services, may, by regulation, exempt from the application of all or any part of the Act any compound, mixture, or preparation containing an anabolic steroid as defined in part 1300 of this chapter, which is intended for administration to a human being or animal, if, because of its concentration, preparation, formulation, or delivery system, it has no significant potential for abuse.
(b) Any person seeking to have any compound, mixture, or preparation containing an anabolic steroid as defined in part 1300 of this chapter exempted from the application of all or any part of the Act, pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section, may apply to the Drug and Chemical Evaluation Section, Diversion Control Division, Drug Enforcement Administration. See the Table of DEA Mailing Addresses in § 1321.01 of this chapter for the current mailing address.
(c) An application for an exemption under this section shall be submitted in triplicate and contain the following information:
(1) The name and address of the applicant;
(2) The name of the product;
(3) The chemical structural formula or description for any anabolic steroid contained in the product;
(4) The complete description of dosage and quantitative composition of the dosage form;
(5) A description of the delivery system, if applicable;
(6) The indications and conditions for use in which species, including whether or not this product is a prescription drug;
(7) Information to facilitate identification of the dosage form, such as shape, color, coating, and scoring;
(8) The label and labeling of the immediate container and the commercial containers, if any, of the product;
(9) The units in which the dosage form is ordinarily available; and
(10) The facts which the applicant believes justify:
(i) A determination that the product has no significant potential for abuse and
(ii) a granting of an exemption under this section.
(d) Within a reasonable period of time after the receipt of the application for an exemption under this section, the Administrator shall notify the applicant of his acceptance or nonacceptance of the application, and if not accepted, the reason therefor. The Administrator need not accept an application for filing if any of the requirements prescribed in paragraph (c) of this section is lacking or is not set forth so as to be readily understood. The applicant may amend the application to meet the requirements of paragraph (c) of this section. If accepted for filing, the Administrator will request from the Secretary for Health and Human Services his recommendation, as to whether such product which contains an anabolic steroid should be considered for exemption from certain portions of the Controlled Substances Act. On receipt of the recommendation of the Secretary, the Administrator shall make a determination as to whether the evidence submitted or otherwise available sufficiently establishes that the product possesses no significant potential for abuse. The Administrator shall issue and publish in the Federal Register his order on the application, which shall include a reference to the legal authority under which the order is issued, and the findings of fact and conclusions of law upon which the order is based. This order shall specify the date on which it will take effect. The Administrator shall permit any interested person to file written comments on or objections to the order within 60 days of the date of publication of his order in the Federal Register. If any such comments or objections raise significant issues regarding any finding of fact or conclusion of law upon which the order is based, the Administrator shall immediately suspend the effectiveness of the order until he may reconsider the application in light of the comments and objections filed. Thereafter, the Administrator shall reinstate, revoke, or amend his original order as he determines appropriate.
(e) The Administrator may revoke any exemption granted pursuant to section 1903(a) of Public Law 101-647 by following the procedures set forth in paragraph (d) of this section for handling an application for an exemption which has been accepted for filing.
[56 FR 42936, Aug. 30, 1991; 57 FR 10815, Mar. 31, 1992, as amended at 62 FR 13968, Mar. 24, 1997; 70 FR 74657, Dec. 16, 2005; 75 FR 10679, Mar. 9, 2010; 81 FR 97021, Dec. 30, 2016]
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Sec. 1308.34 Exempt anabolic steroid products.
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The list of compounds, mixtures, or preparations that contain an anabolic steroid that have been exempted by the Administrator from application of sections 302 through 309 and 1002 through 1004 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 822-829 and 952-954) and §§ 1301.13, 1301.22, and 1301.71 through 1301.76 of this chapter for administrative purposes only may be obtained by submitting a written request to the Drug and Chemical Evaluation Section, Drug Enforcement Administration. See the Table of DEA Mailing Addresses in § 1321.01 of this chapter for the current mailing address.
[75 FR 10679, Mar. 9, 2010]
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Exempt Cannabis Plant Material, and Products Made Therefrom, that Contain Tetrahydrocannabinols
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Sec. 1308.35 Exemption of certain cannabis plant material, and products made therefrom, that contain tetrahydrocannabinols.
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(a) Any processed plant material or animal feed mixture containing any amount of tetrahydrocannabinols (THC) that is both:
(1) Made from any portion of a plant of the genus Cannabis excluded from the definition of marijuana under the Act [i.e., the mature stalks of such plant, fiber produced from such stalks, oil or cake made from the seeds of such plant, any other compound, manufacture, salt, derivative, mixture, or preparation of such mature stalks (except the resin extracted therefrom), fiber, oil, or cake, or the sterilized seed of such plant which is incapable of germination] and
(2) Not used, or intended for use, for human consumption, has been exempted by the Administrator from the application of the Act and this chapter.
(b) As used in this section, the following terms shall have the meanings specified:
(1) The term processed plant material means cannabis plant material that has been subject to industrial processes, or mixed with other ingredients, such that it cannot readily be converted into any form that can be used for human consumption.
(2) The term animal feed mixture means sterilized cannabis seeds mixed with other ingredients (not derived from the cannabis plant) in a formulation that is designed, marketed, and distributed for animal consumption (and not for human consumption).
(3) The term used for human consumption means either:
(i) Ingested orally or
(ii) Applied by any means such that THC enters the human body.
(4) The term intended for use for human consumption means any of the following:
(i) Designed by the manufacturer for human consumption;
(ii) Marketed for human consumption; or
(iii) Distributed, exported, or imported, with the intent that it be used for human consumption.
(c) In any proceeding arising under the Act or this chapter, the burden of going forward with the evidence that a material, compound, mixture, or preparation containing THC is exempt from control pursuant to this section shall be upon the person claiming such exemption, as set forth in section 515(a)(1) of the Act (21 U.S.C. 885(a)(1)). In order to meet this burden with respect to a product or plant material that has not been expressly exempted from control by the Administrator pursuant to § 1308.23, the person claiming the exemption must present rigorous scientific evidence, including well-documented scientific studies by experts trained and qualified to evaluate the effects of drugs on humans.
[66 FR 51544, Oct. 9, 2001]
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Hearings
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Sec. 1308.41 Hearings generally.
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In any case where the Administrator shall hold a hearing on the issuance, amendment, or repeal of rules pursuant to section 201 of the Act, the procedures for such hearing and accompanying proceedings shall be governed generally by the rulemaking procedures set forth in the Administrative Procedure Act (5 U.S.C. 551-559) and specifically by section 201 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 811), by §§ 1308.42-1308.51, and by §§ 1316.41-1316.67 of this chapter.
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Sec. 1308.42 Purpose of hearing.
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If requested by any interested person after proceedings are initiated pursuant to § 1308.43, the Administrator shall hold a hearing for the purpose of receiving factual evidence and expert opinion regarding the issues involved in the issuance, amendment or repeal of a rule issuable pursuant to section 201(a) of the Act (21 U.S.C. 811(a)). Extensive argument should not be offered into evidence but rather presented in opening or closing statements of counsel or in memoranda or proposed findings of fact and conclusions of law. Additional information relating to hearings to include waivers or modification of rules, request for hearing, burden of proof, time and place, and final order are set forth in part 1316 of this chapter.
[62 FR 13968, Mar. 24, 1997]
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Sec. 1308.43 Initiation of proceedings for rulemaking.
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(a) Any interested person may submit a petition to initiate proceedings for the issuance, amendment, or repeal of any rule or regulation issuable pursuant to the provisions of section 201 of the Act.
(b) Petitions shall be submitted in quintuplicate to the Administrator. See the Table of DEA Mailing Addresses in § 1321.01 of this chapter for the current mailing address. Petitions shall be in the following form:
__________ (Date)
Administrator, Drug Enforcement Administration ______ (Mailing Address)
Dear Sir: The undersigned ________ hereby petitions the Administrator to initiate proceedings for the issuance (amendment or repeal) of a rule or regulation pursuant to section 201 of the Controlled Substances Act.
Attached hereto and constituting a part of this petition are the following:
(A) The proposed rule in the form proposed by the petitioner. (If the petitioner seeks the amendment or repeal of an existing rule, the existing rule, together with a reference to the section in the Code of Federal Regulations where it appears, should be included.)
(B) A statement of the grounds which the petitioner relies for the issuance (amendment or repeal) of the rule. (Such grounds shall include a reasonably concise statement of the facts relied upon by the petitioner, including a summary of any relevant medical or scientific evidence known to the petitioner.)
All notices to be sent regarding this petition should be addressed to:
__________ (Name)
__________ (Street Address)
__________ (City and State)
Respectfully yours,
__________ (Signature of petitioner)
(c) Within a reasonable period of time after the receipt of a petition, the Administrator shall notify the petitioner of his acceptance or nonacceptance of the petition, and if not accepted, the reason therefor. The Administrator need not accept a petition for filing if any of the requirements prescribed in paragraph (b) of this section is lacking or is not set forth so as to be readily understood. If the petitioner desires, he may amend the petition to meet the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section. If accepted for filing, a petition may be denied by the Administrator within a reasonable period of time thereafter if he finds the grounds upon which the petitioner relies are not sufficient to justify the initiation of proceedings.
(d) The Administrator shall, before initiating proceedings for the issuance, amendment, or repeal of any rule either to control a drug or other substance, or to transfer a drug or other substance from one schedule to another, or to remove a drug or other substance entirely from the schedules, and after gathering the necessary data, request from the Secretary a scientific and medical evaluation and the Secretary's recommendations as to whether such drug or other substance should be so controlled, transferred, or removed as a controlled substance. The recommendations of the Secretary to the Administrator shall be binding on the Administrator as to such scientific and medical matters, and if the Secretary recommends that a drug or other substance not be controlled, the Administrator shall not control that drug or other substance.
(e) If the Administrator determines that the scientific and medical evaluation and recommendations of the Secretary and all other relevant data constitute substantial evidence of potential for abuse such as to warrant control or additional control over the drug or other substance, or substantial evidence that the drug or other substances should be subjected to lesser control or removed entirely from the schedules, he shall initiate proceedings for control, transfer, or removal as the case may be.
(f) If and when the Administrator determines to initiate proceedings, he shall publish in the Federal Register general notice of any proposed rule making to issue, amend, or repeal any rule pursuant to section 201 of the Act. Such published notice shall include a statement of the time, place, and nature of any hearings on the proposal in the event a hearing is requested pursuant to § 1308.44. Such hearings may not be commenced until after the expiration of at least 30 days from the date the general notice is published in the Federal Register. Such published notice shall also include a reference to the legal authority under which the rule is proposed, a statement of the proposed rule, and, in the discretion of the Administrator, a summary of the subjects and issues involved.
(g) The Administrator may permit any interested persons to file written comments on or objections to the proposal and shall designate in the notice of proposed rule making the time during which such filings may be made.
[38 FR 8254, Mar. 30, 1973. Redesignated at 38 FR 26609, Sept. 24, 1973, and further redesignated and amended at 62 FR 13968, Mar. 24, 1997; 75 FR 10679, Mar. 9, 2010]
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Sec. 1308.44 Request for hearing or appearance; waiver.
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(a) Any interested person desiring a hearing on a proposed rulemaking, shall, within 30 days after the date of publication of notice of the proposed rulemaking in the Federal Register, file with the Administrator a written request for a hearing in the form prescribed in § 1316.47 of this chapter.
(b) Any interested person desiring to participate in a hearing pursuant to § 1308.41 shall, within 30 days after the date of publication of the notice of hearing in the Federal Register, file with the Administrator a written notice of his intention to participate in such hearing in the form prescribed in § 1316.48 of this chapter. Any person filing a request for a hearing need not also file a notice of appearance; the request for a hearing shall be deemed to be a notice of appearance.
(c) Any interested person may, within the period permitted for filing a request for a hearing, file with the Administrator a waiver of an opportunity for a hearing or to participate in a hearing, together with a written statement regarding his position on the matters of fact and law involved in such hearing. Such statement, if admissible, shall be made a part of the record and shall be considered in light of the lack of opportunity for cross-examination in determining the weight to be attached to matters of fact asserted therein.
(d) If any interested person fails to file a request for a hearing; or if he so files and fails to appear at the hearing, he shall be deemed to have waived his opportunity for the hearing or to participate in the hearing, unless he shows good cause for such failure.
(e) If all interested persons waive or are deemed to waive their opportunity for the hearing or to participate in the hearing, the Administrator may cancel the hearing, if scheduled, and issue his final order pursuant to § 1308.45 without a hearing.
[38 FR 8254, Mar. 30, 1973. Redesignated at 38 FR 26609, Sept. 24, 1973, and further redesignated and amended at 62 FR 13968, Mar. 24, 1997]
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Sec. 1308.45 Final order.
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As soon as practicable after the presiding officer has certified the record to the Administrator, the Administrator shall cause to be published in the Federal Register his order in the proceeding, which shall set forth the final rule and the findings of fact and conclusions of law upon which the rule is based. This order shall specify the date on which it shall take effect, which shall not be less than 30 days from the date of publication in the Federal Register unless the Administrator finds that conditions of public health or safety necessitate an earlier effective date, in which event the Administrator shall specify in the order his findings as to such conditions.
[38 FR 8254, Mar. 30, 1973. Redesignated at 38 FR 26609, Sept. 24, 1973, and further redesignated at 62 FR 13968, Mar. 24, 1997]
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Sec. 1308.46 Control required under international treaty.
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Pursuant to section 201(d) of the Act (21 U.S.C. 811(d)), where control of a substance is required by U.S. obligations under international treaties, conventions, or protocols in effect on May 1, 1971, the Administrator shall issue and publish in the Federal Register an order controlling such substance under the schedule he deems most appropriate to carry out obligations. Issuance of such an order shall be without regard to the findings required by subsections 201(a) or 202(b) of the Act (21 U.S.C. 811(a) or 812(b)) and without regard to the procedures prescribed by § 1308.41 or subsections 201 (a) and (b) of the Act (21 U.S.C. 811 (a) and (b)). An order controlling a substance shall become effective 30 days from the date of publication in the Federal Register, unless the Administrator finds that conditions of public health or safety necessitate an earlier effective date, in which event the Administrator shall specify in the order his findings as to such conditions.
[38 FR 8254, Mar. 30, 1973. Redesignated at 38 FR 26609, Sept. 24, 1973, and further redesignated at 62 FR 13968, Mar. 24, 1997]
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Sec. 1308.47 Control of immediate precursors.
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Pursuant to section 201(e) of the Act (21 U.S.C. 811(e)), the Administrator may, without regard to the findings required by subsection 201(a) or 202 (b) of the Act (21 U.S.C. 811(a) or 812(b)) and without regard to the procedures prescribed by § 1308.41 or subsections 201 (a) and (b) of the Act (21 U.S.C. 811(a) and (b)), issue and publish in the Federal Register an order controlling an immediate precursor. The order shall designate the schedule in which the immediate precursor is to be placed, which shall be the same schedule in which the controlled substance of which it is an immediate precursor is placed or any other schedule with a higher numerical designation. An order controlling an immediate precursor shall become effective 30 days from the date of publication in the Federal Register, unless the Administrator finds that conditions of public health or safety necessitate an earlier effective date, in which event the Administrator shall specify in the order his findings as to such conditions.
[38 FR 8254, Mar. 30, 1973. Redesignated at 38 FR 26609, Sept. 24, 1973, and further redesignated at 62 FR 13968, Mar. 24, 1997]
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Sec. 1308.49 Temporary scheduling.
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(a) Pursuant to 21 U.S.C. 811(h) and without regard to the requirements of 21 U.S.C. 811(b) relating to the scientific and medical evaluation of the Secretary of Health and Human Services, the Drug Enforcement Administration may place a substance into Schedule I on a temporary basis, if it determines that such action is necessary to avoid an imminent hazard to the public safety. An order issued under this section may not be effective before the expiration of 30 calendar days from:
(1) The date of publication by the Administration of a notice in the Federal Register of its intention to issue such order and the grounds upon which such order is to be issued; and
(2) The date the Administration has transmitted notification to the Secretary of Health and Human Services of the Administration's intention to issue such order.
(b) An order issued under this section will be vacated upon the conclusion of a subsequent rulemaking proceeding initiated under section 201(a) (21 U.S.C. 811(a)) with respect to such substance or at the end of two years from the effective date of the order scheduling the substance, except that during the pendency of proceedings under section 201(a) (21 U.S.C. 811(a)) with respect to the substance, the Administration may extend the temporary scheduling for up to one year.
[81 FR 97021, Dec. 30, 2016]
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Sec. 1308.50 Temporary and permanent scheduling of recently emerged anabolic steroids.
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(a) The Administrator may issue a temporary order adding a drug or other substance to the definition of anabolic steroids if the Administrator finds that -
(1) The drug or other substance satisfies the criteria for being considered an anabolic steroid under 21 U.S.C. 802(41) but is not listed in that section or by regulation of the Attorney General as being an anabolic steroid; and
(2) Adding such drug or other substance to the definition of anabolic steroids will assist in preventing abuse or misuse of the drug or other substance.
(b) An order issued under paragraph (a) of this section shall not take effect until 30 days after the date of the publication by the Administrator of a notice in the Federal Register of the intention to issue such order and the grounds upon which such order is to be issued. The order shall expire not later than 24 months after the date it becomes effective, except that the Administrator may, during the pendency of proceedings under paragraph (f) of this section, extend the temporary scheduling order for up to 6 months.
(c) The Administrator shall transmit notice of an order proposed to be issued under paragraph (a) of this section to the Secretary of Health and Human Services. In issuing an order under paragraph (a), the Administrator shall take into consideration any comments submitted by the Secretary in response to a notice transmitted pursuant to this paragraph (c).
(d) A temporary scheduling order issued under paragraph (a) of this section shall be vacated upon the issuance of a permanent scheduling order under paragraph (f) of this section.
(e) An order issued under paragraph (a) of this section is not subject to judicial review.
(f) The Administrator may, by rule, issue a permanent order adding a drug or other substance to the definition of anabolic steroids if such drug or other substance satisfies the criteria for being considered an anabolic steroid under 21 U.S.C. 802(41). Such rulemaking may be commenced simultaneously with the issuance of the temporary order issued under paragraph (a) of this section.
[88 FR 50041, Aug. 1, 2023]
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General Information
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Sec. 1309.01 Scope of part 1309.
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Procedures governing the registration of manufacturers, distributors, importers and exporters of List I chemicals pursuant to Sections 102, 302, 303, 1007 and 1008 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 802, 822, 823, 957 and 958) are set forth generally by those sections and specifically by the sections of this part.
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Sec. 1309.02 Definitions.
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Any term used in this part shall have the definition set forth in section 102 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 802) or part 1300 of this chapter.
[62 FR 13968, Mar. 24, 1997]
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Sec. 1309.03 Information; special instructions.
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Information regarding procedures under these rules and instructions supplementing these rules will be furnished upon request by writing to the Registration Section, Drug Enforcement Administration. See the Table of DEA Mailing Addresses in § 1321.01 of this chapter for the current mailing address.
[75 FR 10680, Mar. 9, 2010]
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Fees for Registration and Reregistration
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Sec. 1309.11 Fee Amounts.
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(a) For each application for registration or reregistration to manufacture for distribution the applicant shall pay an annual fee of $3,699.
(b) For each application for registration or reregistration to distribute (either retail distribution or non-retail distribution), import, or export a list I chemical, the applicant shall pay an annual fee of $1,850.
[85 FR 44734, July 24, 2020]
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Sec. 1309.12 Time and method of payment; refund.
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(a) For each application for registration or reregistration to manufacture, distribute, import, or export the applicant shall pay the fee when the application for registration or reregistration is submitted for filing online using the secure application portal at www.DEAdiversion.usdoj.gov.
(b) Payment shall be made online by Automated Clearing House funds transfer, by credit card, or by any other means made available at the time of submission using the secure application portal at www.DEAdiversion.usdoj.gov.
[87 FR 21022, Apr. 11, 2022]
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Requirements for Registration
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Sec. 1309.21 Persons required to register.
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(a) Unless exempted by law or under §§ 1309.24 through 1309.26 or §§ 1310.12 through 1310.13 of this chapter, the following persons must annually obtain a registration specific to the List I chemicals to be handled:
(1) Every person who manufactures or imports or proposes to manufacture or import a List I chemical or a drug product containing ephedrine, pseudoephedrine, or phenylpropanolamine.
(2) Every person who distributes or exports or proposes to distribute or export any List I chemical, other than those List I chemicals contained in a product exempted under paragraph (1)(iv) of the definition of regulated transaction in § 1300.02 of this chapter.
(b) Only persons actually engaged in the activities are required to obtain a registration; related or affiliated persons who are not engaged in the activities are not required to be registered. (For example, a stockholder or parent corporation of a corporation distributing List I chemicals is not required to obtain a registration.)
(c) The registration requirements are summarized in the following table:
Summary of Registration Requirements and Limitations
| Business activity
| Chemicals
| DEA forms
| Application fee
| Registration period
(years)
| Coincident activities allowed
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|---|
| (1) Manufacturing | List I,
Drug products containing ephedrine, pseudoephedrine, phenylpropanolamine | New-510
Renewal-510a | 3,699 | 1 | May distribute that chemical for which registration was issued; may not distribute any chemical for which not registered.
| | (2) Distributing | List I,
Scheduled listed chemical products | New-510
Renewal-510a | 1,850 | 1
| | | (3) Importing | List I,
Drug Products containing ephedrine, pseudoephedrine, phenylpropanolamine | New-510
Renewal-510a | 1,850 | 1 | May distribute that chemical for which registration was issued; may not distribute any chemical for which not registered.
| | (4) Exporting | List I,
Scheduled listed chemical products | New-510
Renewal-510a | 1,850 | 1 | |
[75 FR 4980, Feb. 1, 2010, as amended at 77 FR 4236, Jan. 27, 2012; 77 FR 15250, Mar. 15, 2012; 85 FR 44734, July 24, 2020]
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Sec. 1309.22 Separate registration for independent activities.
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(a) The following groups of activities are deemed to be independent of each other:
(1) Manufacturing of List I chemicals or drug products containing ephedrine, pseudoephedrine, or phenylpropanolamine.
(2) Distributing of List I chemicals and scheduled listed chemical products.
(3) Importing List I chemicals or drug products containing ephedrine, pseudoephedrine, or phenylpropanolamine.
(4) Exporting List I chemicals and scheduled listed chemical products.
(b) Except as provided in paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section, every person who engages in more than one group of independent activities must obtain a separate registration for each group of activities, unless otherwise exempted by the Act or §§ 1309.24 through 1309.26.
(c) A person registered to import any List I chemical shall be authorized to distribute that List I chemical after importation, but no other chemical that the person is not registered to import.
(d) A person registered to manufacture any List I chemical shall be authorized to distribute that List I chemical after manufacture, but no other chemical that the person is not registered to manufacture.
[75 FR 4981, Feb. 1, 2010]
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Sec. 1309.23 Separate registration for separate locations.
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(a) A separate registration is required for each principal place of business at one general physical location where List I chemicals are manufactured, distributed, imported, or exported by a person.
(b) The following locations shall be deemed to be places not subject to the registration requirement:
(1) A warehouse where List I chemicals are stored by or on behalf of a registered person, unless such chemicals are distributed directly from such warehouse to locations other than the registered location from which the chemicals were originally delivered; and
(2) An office used by agents of a registrant where sales of List I chemicals are solicited, made, or supervised but which neither contains such chemicals (other than chemicals for display purposes) nor serves as a distribution point for filling sales orders.
[60 FR 32454, June 22, 1995, as amended at 75 FR 4981, Feb. 1, 2010]
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Sec. 1309.24 Waiver of registration requirement for certain activities.
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(a) The requirement of registration is waived for any agent or employee of a person who is registered to engage in any group of independent activities, if the agent or employee is acting in the usual course of his or her business or employment.
(b) The requirement of registration is waived for any person who manufactures or distributes a scheduled listed chemical product or other product containing a List I chemical that is described and included in paragraph (1)(iv) of the definition of regulated transaction in § 1300.02 of this chapter, if that person is registered with the Administration to engage in the same activity with a controlled substance.
(c) The requirement of registration is waived for any person who imports or exports a scheduled listed chemical product or other product containing a List I chemical that is described and included in paragraph (1)(iv) of the definition of regulated transaction in § 1300.02 of this chapter, if that person is registered with the Administration to engage in the same activity with a controlled substance.
(d) The requirement of registration is waived for any person who only distributes a prescription drug product containing a List I chemical that is regulated pursuant to paragraph (1)(iv) of the definition of regulated transaction in § 1300.02 of this chapter.
(e) The requirement of registration is waived for any person whose activities with respect to List I chemicals are limited to the distribution of red phosphorus, white phosphorus, or hypophosphorous acid (and its salts) to another location operated by the same firm solely for internal end-use, or an EPA or State licensed waste treatment or disposal firm for the purpose of waste disposal.
(f) The requirement of registration is waived for any person whose distribution of red phosphorus or white phosphorus is limited solely to residual quantities of chemical returned to the producer, in reusable rail cars and intermodal tank containers which conform to International Standards Organization specifications (with capacities greater than or equal to 2,500 gallons in a single container).
(g) The requirement of registration is waived for any person whose activities with respect to List I chemicals are limited solely to the distribution of Lugol's Solution (consisting of 5 percent iodine and 10 percent potassium iodide in an aqueous solution) in original manufacturer's packaging of one fluid ounce (30 ml) or less.
(h) The requirement of registration is waived for any manufacturer of a List I chemical, if that chemical is produced solely for internal consumption by the manufacturer and there is no subsequent distribution or exportation of the List I chemical.
(i) If any person exempted under paragraph (b), (c), (d), (e), or (f) of this section also engages in the distribution, importation, or exportation of a List I chemical, other than as described in such paragraph, the person shall obtain a registration for the activities, as required by § 1309.21.
(j) The Administrator may, upon finding that continuation of the waiver would not be in the public interest, suspend or revoke a waiver granted under paragraph (b), (c), (d), (e), or (f) of this section pursuant to the procedures set forth in §§ 1309.43 through 1309.46 and §§ 1309.51 through 1309.55. In considering the revocation or suspension of a person's waiver granted pursuant to paragraph (b) or (c) of this section, the Administrator shall also consider whether action to revoke or suspend the person's controlled substance registration pursuant to section 304 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 824) is warranted.
(k) Any person exempted from the registration requirement under this section must comply with the security requirements set forth in §§ 1309.71 through 1309.73 and the recordkeeping and reporting requirements set forth under Parts 1310, 1313, 1314, and 1315 of this chapter.
[75 FR 4981, Feb. 1, 2010, as amended at 77 FR 4236, Jan. 25, 2012]
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Sec. 1309.25 Temporary exemption from registration for chemical registration applicants.
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(a) Each person required by section 302 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 822) to obtain a registration to distribute, import, or export a combination ephedrine product is temporarily exempted from the registration requirement, provided that the person submits a proper application for registration on or before July 12, 1997. The exemption will remain in effect for each person who has made such application until the Administration has approved or denied that application. This exemption applies only to registration; all other chemical control requirements set forth in this part 1309 and parts 1310, and 1313 of this chapter remain in full force and effect.
(b) Each person required by section 302 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 822) to obtain a registration to distribute, import, or export a pseudoephedrine or phenylpropanolamine drug product is temporarily exempted from the registration requirement, provided that the person submits a proper application for registration on or before October 3, 1997. The exemption will remain in effect for each person who has made such application until the Administration has approved or denied that application. This exemption applies only to registration; all other chemical control requirements set forth in this part 1309 and parts 1310 and 1313 of this chapter remain in full force and effect.
(c) Each person required by sections 302 or 1007 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 822 or 957) to obtain a registration to manufacture or import prescription drug products containing ephedrine, pseudoephedrine, or phenylpropanolamine is temporarily exempted from the registration requirement, provided that the person submits a proper application for registration on or before March 3, 2010. The exemption will remain in effect for each person who has made such application until the Administration has approved or denied the application. This exemption applies only to registration; all other chemical control requirements set forth in this part and parts 1310, 1313, and 1315 of this chapter remain in full force and effect.
[67 FR 14860, Mar. 28, 2002, as amended at 75 FR 4982, Feb. 1, 2010]
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Sec. 1309.26 Exemption of law enforcement officials.
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(a) The requirement of registration is waived for the following persons in the circumstances described in this section:
(1) Any officer or employee of the Administration, any customs officer, any officer or employee of the U.S. Food and Drug Administration, and any Federal or Insular officer who is lawfully engaged in the enforcement of any federal law relating to listed chemicals, controlled substances, drugs, or customs, and is duly authorized to possess and distribute List I chemicals in the course of his/her official duties; and
(2) Any officer or employee of any State, or any political subdivision or agency thereof, who is engaged in the enforcement of any State or local law relating to listed chemicals and controlled substances and is duly authorized to possess and distribute List I chemicals in the course of his official duties.
(b) Any official exempted by this section may, when acting in the course of official duties, possess any List I chemical and distribute any such chemical to any other official who is also exempted by this section and acting in the course of official duties.
[60 FR 32454, June 22, 1995, as amended at 81 FR 97021, Dec. 30, 2016]
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Application for Registration
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Sec. 1309.31 Time for application for registration; expiration date.
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(a) Any person who is required to be registered and who is not so registered may apply for registration at any time. No person required to be registered shall engage in any activity for which registration is required until the application for registration is approved and a Certificate of Registration is issued by the Administrator to such person.
(b) Any person who is registered may apply to be reregistered not more than 60 days before the expiration date of his registration.
(c) At the time a person is first registered, that person shall be assigned to one of twelve groups, which shall correspond to the months of the year. The expiration date of the registrations of all registrants within any group will be the last day of the month designated for that group. In assigning any of the above persons to a group, the Administration may select a group the expiration date of which is less than one year from the date such business activity was registered. If the person is assigned to a group which has an expiration date less than eleven months from the date of which the person is registered, the registration shall not expire until one year from that expiration date; in all other cases, the registration shall expire on the expiration date following the date on which the person is registered.
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Sec. 1309.32 Application forms; contents; signature.
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(a) Any person who is required to be registered pursuant to § 1309.21 and is not so registered, shall apply on DEA Form 510 using the secure application portal at www.DEAdiversion.usdoj.gov.
(b) Any person who is registered pursuant to § 1309.21, shall apply for reregistration on DEA Form 510a using the secure application portal at www.DEAdiversion.usdoj.gov.
(c) DEA Forms 510 and 510a may be obtained online at www.DEAdiversion.usdoj.gov. DEA will send renewal notifications via email to registrants approximately calendar 60 days prior to their registration expiration date. Registrants are responsible for keeping their email address current in the secure application portal on DEA's website throughout the duration of their registration. Only applications submitted online through the secure application portal on DEA's website will be accepted for processing.
(d) Each application for registration must include the Administration Chemical Code Number, as set forth in § 1310.02 of this chapter, for each List I chemical to be manufactured, distributed, imported, or exported.
(e) Registration shall not entitle a person to engage in any activity with any List I chemical not specified in his or her application.
(f) Each application shall include all information called for in the form, unless the item is not applicable, in which case this fact shall be indicated.
(g) Each application, attachment, or other document filed as part of an application, shall be signed by the applicant, if an individual; by a partner of the applicant, if a partnership; or by an officer of the applicant, if a corporation, corporate division, association, trust or other entity. An applicant may authorize one or more individuals, who would not otherwise be authorized to do so, to sign applications for the applicant by filing with the application or other document a power of attorney for each such individual. The power of attorney shall be signed by a person who is authorized to sign applications under this paragraph and shall contain the signature of the individual being authorized to sign the application or other document. The power of attorney shall be valid until revoked by the applicant.
[60 FR 32454, June 22, 1995, as amended at 75 FR 10680, Mar. 9, 2010; 81 FR 97021, Dec. 30, 2016; 87 FR 21023, Apr. 11, 2022]
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Sec. 1309.33 Filing of application; joint filings.
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All applications for registration shall be submitted online at www.DEAdiversion.usdoj.gov for filing. The appropriate registration fee and any required attachments must accompany the application.
[87 FR 21023, Apr. 11, 2022]
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Sec. 1309.34 Acceptance for filing; defective applications.
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(a) Applications submitted for filing are dated upon receipt. If the application is found to be complete, the application will be accepted for filing. Applications failing to comply with the requirements of this part will not be accepted for filing.
(b) Accepting an application for filing does not preclude any subsequent request for additional information pursuant to § 1309.35 and has no bearing on whether the application will be granted.
[60 FR 32454, June 22, 1995, as amended at 87 FR 21023, Apr. 11, 2022]
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Sec. 1309.35 Additional information.
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The Administrator may require an applicant to submit such documents or written statements of fact relevant to the application as he deems necessary to determine whether the application should be granted. The failure of the applicant to provide such documents or statements within a reasonable time after being requested to do so shall be deemed to be a waiver by the applicant of an opportunity to present such documents or facts for consideration by the Administrator in granting or denying the application.
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Sec. 1309.36 Amendments to and withdrawals of applications.
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(a) An application may be amended or withdrawn without permission of the Administration at any time before the date on which the applicant receives an order to show cause pursuant to § 1309.46. An application may be amended or withdrawn with permission of the Administrator at any time where good cause is shown by the applicant or where the amendment or withdrawal is in the public interest.
(b) After an application has been accepted for filing, the request by the applicant that it be returned or the failure of the applicant to respond to official correspondence regarding the application, including a request that the applicant submit the required fee, when sent by registered or certified mail, return receipt requested, shall be deemed to be a withdrawal of the application.
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Action on Applications for Registration: Revocation or Suspension of Registration
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Sec. 1309.41 Administrative review generally.
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The Administrator may inspect, or cause to be inspected, the establishment of an applicant or registrant, pursuant to subpart A of part 1316 of this chapter. The Administrator shall review the application for registration and other information gathered by the Administrator regarding an applicant in order to determine whether the applicable standards of Section 303 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 823) have been met by the applicant.
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Sec. 1309.42 Certificate of registration; denial of registration.
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(a) The Administrator shall issue a Certificate of Registration (DEA Form 511) to an applicant if the issuance of registration or reregistration is required under the applicable provisions of section 303 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 823). In the event that the issuance of registration or reregistration is not required, the Administrator shall deny the application. Before denying any application, the Administrator shall issue an order to show cause pursuant to Section 1309.46 and, if requested by the applicant, shall hold a hearing on the application pursuant to § 1309.51.
(b) The Certificate of Registration (DEA Form 511) shall contain the name, address, and registration number of the registrant, the activity authorized by the registration, the amount of fee paid, and the expiration date of the registration. The registrant shall maintain the certificate of registration at the registered location in a readily retrievable manner and shall permit inspection of the certificate by any official, agent or employee of the Administration or of any Federal, State, or local agency engaged in enforcement of laws relating to List I chemicals or controlled substances.
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Sec. 1309.43 Suspension or revocation of registration.
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(a) The Administrator may suspend any registration pursuant to section 304(a) of the Act (21 U.S.C. 824(a)) for any period of time he determines.
(b) The Administrator may revoke any registration pursuant to section 304(a) of the Act (21 U.S.C. 824(a)).
(c) Before revoking or suspending any registration, the Administrator shall issue an order to show cause pursuant to Section 1309.46 and, if requested by the registrant, shall hold a hearing pursuant to Section 1309.51. Notwithstanding the requirements of this Section, however, the Administrator may suspend any registration pending a final order pursuant to § 1309.44.
(d) Upon service of the order of the Administrator suspending or revoking registration, the registrant shall immediately deliver his or her Certificate of Registration to the nearest office of the Administration. Also, upon service of the order of the Administrator revoking or suspending registration, the registrant shall, as instructed by the Administrator:
(1) Deliver all List I chemicals in his or her possession that were obtained under the authority of a registration or an exemption from registration granted by the Administrator by regulation, to the nearest office of the Administration or to authorized agents of the Administration; or
(2) Place all such List I chemicals in his or her possession under seal as described in section 304(f) of the Act (21 U.S.C. 824(f)).
(e) In the event that revocation or suspension is limited to a particular chemical or chemicals, the registrant shall be given a new Certificate of Registration for all substances not affected by such revocation or suspension; no fee shall be required for the new Certificate of Registration. The registrant shall deliver the old Certificate of Registration to the nearest office of the Administration. Also, upon service of the order of the Administrator revoking or suspending registration with respect to a particular chemical or chemicals, the registrant shall, as instructed by the Administrator:
(1) Deliver to the nearest office of the Administration or to authorized agents of the Administration all of the particular chemical or chemicals in his or her possession that were obtained under the authority of a registration or an exemption from registration granted by the Administrator by regulation, which are affected by the revocation or suspension; or
(2) Place all of such chemicals under seal as described in section 304(f) of the Act (21 U.S.C. 824(f)).
[60 FR 32454, June 22, 1995, as amended at 62 FR 5916, Feb. 10, 1997]
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Sec. 1309.44 Suspension of registration pending final order.
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(a) The Administrator may suspend any registration simultaneously with or at any time subsequent to the service upon the registrant of an order to show cause why such registration should not be revoked or suspended, in any case where he finds that there is an imminent danger to the public health or safety. If the Administrator so suspends, he shall serve with the order to show cause pursuant to § 1309.46 an order of immediate suspension that shall contain a statement of his findings regarding the danger to public health or safety.
(b) Upon service of the order of immediate suspension, the registrant shall promptly return his Certificate of Registration to the nearest office of the Administration. Also, upon service of the order of immediate suspension, the registrant shall, as instructed by the Administrator:
(1) Deliver to the nearest office of the Administration or to authorized agents of the Administration all of the particular chemical or chemicals in his or her possession that were obtained under the authority of a registration or an exemption from registration granted by the Administrator by regulation, which are affected by the revocation or suspension; or
(2) Place all of such chemicals under seal as described in section 304(f) of the Act (21 U.S.C. 824(f)).
(c) Any suspension shall continue in effect until the conclusion of all proceedings upon the revocation or suspension, including any judicial review thereof, unless sooner withdrawn by the Administrator or dissolved by a court of competent jurisdiction. Any registrant whose registration is suspended under this section may request a hearing on the revocation or suspension of his registration at a time earlier than specified in the order to show cause pursuant to Section 1309.46, which request shall be granted by the Administrator, who shall fix a date for such hearing as early as reasonably possible.
[60 FR 32454, June 22, 1995, as amended at 62 FR 5916, Feb. 10, 1997]
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Sec. 1309.45 Extension of registration pending final order.
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In the event that an applicant for reregistration (who is doing business under a registration previously granted and not revoked or suspended) has applied for reregistration at least 45 days before the date on which the existing registration is due to expire, and the Administrator has issued no order on the application on the date on which the existing registration is due to expire, the existing registration of the applicant shall automatically be extended and continue in effect until the date on which the Administrator so issues his order. The Administrator may extend any other existing registration under the circumstances contemplated in this section even though the registrant failed to apply for reregistration at least 45 days before expiration of the existing registration, with or without request by the registrant, if the Administrator finds that such extension is not inconsistent with the public health and safety.
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Sec. 1309.46 Order to show cause.
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(a) If, upon examination of the application for registration from any applicant and other information gathered by the Administration regarding the applicant, the Administrator is unable to make the determinations required by the applicable provisions of section 303 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 823) to register the applicant, the Administrator shall serve upon the applicant an order to show cause why the application for registration should not be denied.
(b) If, upon information gathered by the Administration regarding any registrant, the Administrator determines that the registration of such registrant is subject to suspension or revocation pursuant to section 304 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 824), the Administrator shall serve upon the registrant an order to show cause why the registration should not be revoked or suspended.
(c) The order to show cause shall call upon the applicant or registrant to appear before the Administrator at a time and place stated in the order, which shall not be less than 30 days after the date of receipt of the order. The order to show cause shall also contain a statement of the legal basis for such hearing and for the denial, revocation, or suspension of registration and a summary of the matters of fact and law asserted.
(d)(1) When to File: Hearing Request. A party that wishes to request a hearing in response to an order to show cause must file with the Office of the Administrative Law Judges and serve on DEA such request no later than 30 days following the date of receipt of the order to show cause. Service of the request on DEA shall be accomplished by sending it to the address, or email address, provided in the order to show cause.
(2) When to File: Answer. A party requesting a hearing shall also file with the Office of the Administrative Law Judges and serve on DEA an answer to the order to show cause no later than 30 days following the date of receipt of the order to show cause. A party shall also serve its answer on DEA at the address, or email address, provided in the order to show cause. The presiding officer may, upon a showing of good cause by the party, consider an answer that has been filed out of time.
(3) Contents of Answer; Effect of Failure to Deny. For each factual allegation in the order to show cause, the answer shall specifically admit, deny, or state that the party does not have, and is unable to obtain, sufficient information to admit or deny the allegation. When a party intends in good faith to deny only a part of an allegation, the party shall specify so much of it as is true and shall deny only the remainder. A statement of a lack of information shall have the effect of a denial. Any factual allegation not denied shall be deemed admitted.
(4) Amendments. Prior to the issuance of the prehearing ruling, a party may as a matter of right amend its answer one time. Subsequent to the issuance of the prehearing ruling, a party may amend its answer only with leave of the presiding officer. Leave shall be freely granted when justice so requires.
(e) When authorized by the Administrator, any agent of the Administration may serve the order to show cause.
[60 FR 32454, June 22, 1995, as amended at 81 FR 97021, Dec. 30, 2016; 87 FR 68044, Nov. 14, 2022]
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Hearings
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Sec. 1309.51 Hearings generally.
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(a) In any case where the Administrator shall hold a hearing on any registration or application therefore, the procedures for such hearing shall be governed generally by the adjudication procedures set forth in the Administrative Procedure Act (5 U.S.C. 551-559) and specifically by sections 303 and 304 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 823-824), by §§ 1309.52 through 1309.55, and by the procedures for administrative hearings under the Act set forth in §§ 1316.41 through 1316.67 of this chapter.
(b) Any hearing under this part shall be independent of, and not in lieu of, criminal prosecutions or other proceedings under the Act or any other law of the United States.
[60 FR 32454, June 22, 1995, as amended at 81 FR 97021, Dec. 30, 2016]
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Sec. 1309.52 Purpose of hearing.
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If requested by a person entitled to a hearing, the Administrator shall hold a hearing for the purpose of receiving factual evidence regarding the issues involved in the denial, revocation, or suspension of any registration. Extensive argument should not be offered into evidence but rather presented in opening or closing statements of counsel or in memoranda or proposed findings of fact and conclusions of law.
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Sec. 1309.53 Request for hearing or appearance; waiver; default.
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(a) Any person entitled to a hearing pursuant to §§ 1309.42 and 1309.43 and desiring a hearing shall, within 30 days after the date of receipt of the order to show cause, file with the Administrator a written request for a hearing in the form prescribed in § 1316.47 of this chapter.
(b)(1) Any person entitled to a hearing pursuant to § 1309.42 or 1309.43 who fails to file a timely request for a hearing, shall be deemed to have waived their right to a hearing and to be in default, unless the registrant/applicant establishes good cause for failing to file a timely hearing request. Any person who has failed to timely request a hearing under paragraph (a) may seek to be excused from the default by filing a motion with the Office of Administrative Law Judges establishing good cause to excuse the default no later than 45 days after the date of receipt of the order to show cause. Thereafter, any person who has failed to timely request a hearing under paragraph (a) and seeks to be excused from the default, shall file such motion with the Office of the Administrator, which shall have exclusive authority to rule on the motion.
(2) Any person who has requested a hearing pursuant to this section but who fails to timely file an answer and who fails to demonstrate good cause for failing to timely file an answer, shall be deemed to have waived their right to a hearing and to be in default. Upon motion of DEA, the presiding officer shall then enter an order terminating the proceeding.
(3) In the event DEA fails to prosecute or a person who has requested a hearing fails to plead (including by failing to file an answer) or otherwise defend, said party shall be deemed to be in default and the opposing party may move to terminate the proceeding. Upon such motion, the presiding officer shall then enter an order terminating the proceeding, absent a showing of good cause by the party deemed to be in default. Upon termination of the proceeding by the presiding officer, a party may seek relief only by filing a motion establishing good cause to excuse its default with the Office of the Administrator.
(c) If any person entitled to participate in a hearing pursuant to this section fails to file a notice of appearance either as part of a hearing request or separately, or if such person so files and fails to appear at the hearing, such person shall be deemed to have waived their opportunity to participate in the hearing, unless such person shows good cause for such failure.
(d) A default, unless excused, shall be deemed to constitute a waiver of the applicant's/registrant's right to a hearing and an admission of the factual allegations of the order to show cause.
(e)(1) In the event that a registrant/applicant is deemed to be in default pursuant to paragraph (b)(1) of this section and has not established good cause to be excused from the default, or the presiding officer has issued an order termination the proceeding pursuant to paragraphs (b)(2) or (b)(3) of this section, DEA may then file a request for final agency action with the Administrator, along with a record to support its request. In such circumstances, the Administrator may enter a default final order pursuant to § 1316.67 of this chapter.
(2) In the event that DEA is deemed to be in default and the presiding officer has issued an order terminating the proceeding pursuant to paragraph (b)(3) of this section, the presiding officer shall transmit the record to the Administrator for his consideration no later than five business days after the date of issuance of the order. Upon termination of the proceeding by the presiding officer, DEA may seek relief only by filing a motion with the Office of the Administrator establishing good cause to excuse its default.
(3) A party held to be in default may move to set aside a default final order issued by the Administrator by filing a motion no later than 30 days from the date of issuance by the Administrator of a default final order. Any such motion shall be granted only upon a showing of good cause to excuse the default.
[60 FR 32454, June 22, 1995. Redesignated at 62 FR 13968, Mar. 24, 1997; 87 FR 68045, Nov. 14, 2022]
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Sec. 1309.54 Burden of proof.
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(a) At any hearing for the denial of a registration, the Administration shall have the burden of proving that the requirements for such registration pursuant to section 303 of the Act (21 U.S.C. 823) are not satisfied.
(b) At any hearing for the revocation or suspension of a registration, the Administration shall have the burden of proving that the requirements for such revocation or suspension pursuant to section 304(a) of the Act (21 U.S.C. 824(a)) are satisfied.
[60 FR 32454, June 22, 1995. Redesignated at 62 FR 13968, Mar. 24, 1997]
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Sec. 1309.55 Time and place of hearing.
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The hearing will commence at the place and time designated in the order to show cause or notice of hearing published in the Federal Register (unless expedited pursuant to Section 1309.44(c)) but thereafter it may be moved to a different place and may be continued from day to day or recessed to a later day without notice other than announcement thereof by the presiding officer at the hearing.
[60 FR 32454, June 22, 1995. Redesignated at 62 FR 13968, Mar. 24, 1997]
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Modification, Transfer and Termination of Registration
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Sec. 1309.61 Modification in registration.
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Any registrant may apply to modify his or her registration to authorize the handling of additional List I chemicals or to change his or her name or address, by submitting a letter of request to the Registration Section, Drug Enforcement Administration. See the Table of DEA Mailing Addresses in § 1321.01 of this chapter for the current mailing address. The letter shall contain the registrant's name, address, and registration number as printed on the certificate of registration, and the List I chemicals to be added to his registration or the new name or address and shall be signed in accordance with § 1309.32(g). No fee shall be required to be paid for the modification. The request for modification shall be handled in the same manner as an application for registration. If the modification in registration is approved, the Administrator shall issue a new certificate of registration (DEA Form 511) to the registrant, who shall maintain it with the old certificate of registration until expiration.
[75 FR 10680, Mar. 9, 2010]
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Sec. 1309.62 Termination of registration.
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(a) The registration of any person shall terminate, without any further action by the Administration, if and when such person dies, ceases legal existence, discontinues business or professional practice, or surrenders a registration. Any registrant who ceases legal existence or discontinues business or professional practice shall promptly notify the Special Agent in Charge of the Administration in the area in which the person is located of such fact and seek authority and instructions to dispose of any List I chemicals obtained under the authority of that registration. Any registrant who ceases legal existence or discontinues business or professional practice or wishes to surrender a registration shall notify the Special Agent in Charge of the Administration in the area in which the person is located of such fact and seek authority and instructions to dispose of any List I chemicals obtained under the authority of that registration.
(b) The Special Agent in Charge shall authorize and instruct the person to dispose of the List I chemical in one of the following manners:
(1) By transfer to person registered under the Act and authorized to possess the substances;
(2) By delivery to an agent of the Administration or to the nearest office of the Administration;
(3) By such other means as the Special Agent in Charge may determine to assure that the substance does not become available to unauthorized persons.
[60 FR 32454, June 22, 1995, as amended at 62 FR 5916, Feb. 10, 1997; 76 FR 61564, Oct. 5, 2011; 77 FR 4236, Jan. 27, 2012]
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Sec. 1309.63 Transfer of registration.
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No registration or any authority conferred thereby shall be assigned or otherwise transferred except upon such conditions as the Administrator may specifically designate and then only pursuant to his written consent.
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Security Requirements
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Sec. 1309.71 General security requirements.
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(a) All applicants and registrants must provide effective controls and procedures to guard against theft and diversion of List I chemicals. Chemicals must be stored in containers sealed in such a manner as to indicate any attempts at tampering with the container. Where chemicals cannot be stored in sealed containers, access to the chemicals should be controlled through physical means or through human or electronic monitoring.
(b) In evaluating the effectiveness of security controls and procedures, the Administrator shall consider the following factors:
(1) The type, form, and quantity of List I chemicals handled;
(2) The location of the premises and the relationship such location bears on the security needs;
(3) The type of building construction comprising the facility and the general characteristics of the building or buildings;
(4) The availability of electronic detection and alarm systems;
(5) The extent of unsupervised public access to the facility;
(6) The adequacy of supervision over employees having access to List I chemicals;
(7) The procedures for handling business guests, visitors, maintenance personnel, and nonemployee service personnel in areas where List I chemicals are processed or stored; and
(8) The adequacy of the registrant's or applicant's systems for monitoring the receipt, distribution, and disposition of List I chemicals in its operations.
(c) Any registrant or applicant desiring to determine whether a proposed system of security controls and procedures is adequate may submit materials and plans regarding the proposed security controls and procedures either to the Special Agent in Charge in the region in which the security controls and procedures will be used, or to the Regulatory Section, Drug Enforcement Administration. See the Table of DEA Mailing Addresses in § 1321.01 of this chapter for the current mailing address.
[60 FR 32454, June 22, 1995, as amended at 62 FR 13968, Mar. 24, 1997; 67 FR 14861, Mar. 28, 2002; 71 FR 56023, Sept. 26, 2006; 75 FR 10680, Mar. 9, 2010; 81 FR 97021, Dec. 30, 2016]
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Sec. 1309.72 Felony conviction; employer responsibilities.
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(a) The registrant shall exercise caution in the consideration of employment of persons who will have access to listed chemicals, who have been convicted of a felony offense relating to controlled substances or listed chemicals, or who have, at any time, had an application for registration with the DEA denied, had a DEA registration revoked, or surrendered a DEA registration for cause. (For purposes of this subsection, the term "for cause" means a surrender in lieu of, or as a consequence of, any Federal or State administrative, civil or criminal action resulting from an investigation of the individual's handling of controlled substances or listed chemicals.) The registrant should be aware of the circumstances regarding the action against the potential employee and the rehabilitative efforts following the action. The registrant shall assess the risks involved in employing such persons, including the potential for action against the registrant pursuant to § 1309.43, If such person is found to have diverted listed chemicals, and, in the event of employment, shall institute procedures to limit the potential for diversion of List I chemicals.
(b) It is the position of DEA that employees who possess, sell, use or divert listed chemicals or controlled substances will subject themselves not only to State or Federal prosecution for any illicit activity, but shall also immediately become the subject of independent action regarding their continued employment. The employer will assess the seriousness of the employee's violation, the position of responsibility held by the employee, past record of employment, etc., in determining whether to suspend, transfer, terminate or take other action against the employee.
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Sec. 1309.73 Employee responsibility to report diversion.
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Reports of listed chemical diversion by fellow employees is not only a necessary part of an overall employee security program but also serves the public interest at large. It is, therefore, the position of DEA that an employee who has knowledge of diversion from his employer by a fellow employee has an obligation to report such information to a responsible security official of the employer. The employer shall treat such information as confidential and shall take all reasonable steps to protect the confidentiality of the information and the identity of the employee furnishing information. A failure to report information of chemical diversion will be considered in determining the feasibility of continuing to allow an employee to work in an area with access to chemicals. The employer shall inform all employees concerning this policy.
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Authority: 21 U.S.C. 802, 821, 822, 823, 824, 830, 871(b), 875, 877, 886a, 952, 953, 957, 958.
Source: 60 FR 32454, June 22, 1995, unless otherwise noted.
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